Intercity sleeper IELTS reading

SECTION 1
Read the text below and answer Questions 1-6



Questions 1-6. Look at the seven job advertisements, A-G, and read the descriptions of people below. Which is the most suitable job for each person?
1. a person with two small children who wants a few hours a week of unskilled work in the early mornings
2. a person with no experience or qualifications who is looking for a short term full¬time job, Monday to Friday
3. a lively student with no experience, who cannot work on weekdays
4. a person with more than 20 years’ experience in catering who would like to run a business
5. a catering college graduate who is now looking for his first full-time job
6. a person with many years’ experience working in hotels who is now looking for well- paid part-time employment in a hotel

INTERCITY SLEEPER BETWEEN LONDON AND SCOTLAND



Read the text below and answer Questions 7-14
Most tickets may be used for travel by Sleeper, subject to availability, and a reservation in a two- berth cabin can be made for £25, except in the case of Solo and Special tickets, which include Sleeper reservations in the fare. The price includes early morning tea or coffee and biscuits. A continental or hot breakfast can be ordered if you wish. Choose from a range of tickets to suit your journey.

A – SuperApex: Only available for travel after 9am. Book at least 2 weeks ahead and travel between Edinburgh or Glasgow and London for the unbeatable price of £59 return. This ticket is non-refundable unless the service is cancelled.

B – Apex: Areal bargain fare. Only £69 return between Edinburgh or Glasgow and London. Great value Sleeper travel available by booking at least a week before outward travel. Ticket refundable on payment of a 25% administrative charge.

C – SuperSaver: Available right up to the day of travel and valid any day except these peak days: all Fridays, also 18-30 December, 31 March and 28 May. Departures between midnight and 2am count as previous day’s departures. London to Glasgow or Edinburgh £82.

D – Saver: This flexible ticket is valid every day and can be bought on the day of travel. Your ticket allows standard class travel on any train between 10am and midnight. No seat reservations available. London to Glasgow or Edinburgh £95.

E – Solo: Treat yourself and enjoy exclusive use of a Standard cabin. Solo is an inclusive return travel ticket with Sleeper reservations for one or both directions. Outward and return reservations should be made at the time of booking. The journey must include a Saturday night away. £140-£160 London to Edinburgh/Glasgow return.

F – Special: Special is an inclusive return travel package for two people including sleeper reservations for one or both directions. It can mean savings for both of you. Outward and return reservations should be made at the time of booking. From £120.

G – Standard: Not the cheapest option but available up to the time of travel and valid for all trains and at all times. You are advised to turn up early for travel on a Friday.



Questions 7-14. Look at the seven types of train ticket, A-G, on page 107. For which type of train ticket are the following statements true? Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 7-14 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.

7. There are advantages if you book a journey with a friend.

8. You cannot use this on a Friday.

9. This can be used without restriction.

10. This can only be booked up to 7 days before departure.

11. It’s the cheapest ticket available but there is a restriction on departure time.

12. If you decide not to travel after you have bought the ticket, you cannot get your money back.

13. This is not available if you’re travelling out on a Monday and back the next day.

14. You cannot use this ticket for departures between midnight and 10am.


FORMAL DRESS CODE FOR COMPANY EMPLOYEES

Read the text below and answer Questions 15-21
At Transit European, the company’s objective in establishing a formal dress code is to enable our employees to project the professional image that is in keeping with the needs of our clients and customers who seek our guidance, input, and professional services. Because our industry requires the appearance of trusted business professionals and we serve clients at our site on a daily basis, a more formal dress code is necessary for our employees.

Formal Dress Code Guidelines: In a formal business environment, the standard of dressing for men and women is a suit. Alternatively a jacket may be worn with appropriate accessories. Torn, dirty, or frayed clothing is unacceptable. Clothing should be pressed and never wrinkled. No dress code can cover all contingencies so employees must exert a certain amount of judgement in their choice of clothing to wear to work. If you experience uncertainty, please ask your supervisor for advice.

Shoes and Footwear: Conservative walking shoes, dress shoes, loafers, boots, flats, dress heels, and backless shoes are acceptable for work. Not wearing stockings or socks is inappropriate. Tennis shoes and any shoe with an open toe are not acceptable in the office.

Accessories and Jewellery: The wearing of ties, scarves, belts, and jewellery is encouraged, provided they are tasteful. Items which are flashy should be avoided.

Makeup, Perfume, and Cologne: A professional appearance is encouraged and excessive makeup is unprofessional. Remember that some employees may have allergic reactions to the chemicals in perfumes and makeup, so wear these substances in moderation.

Hats and Head Covering: Hats are not appropriate in the office. Head covers that are required for reasons of faith or to honour cultural tradition are permitted.

Dress Down Days: Certain days can be declared dress down days, generally Fridays. On these days, business casual clothing is allowed. Clothing that has our company logo is strongly encouraged. Sports team, university, and fashion brand names on clothing are generally acceptable. However, you may wish to keep a jacket in your office in case a client unexpectedly appears.

Violation of Dress Code: If clothing fails to meet these standards, as determined by the employee’s supervisor, the employee will be asked not to wear the inappropriate item to work again. If the problem persists, the employee will receive a verbal warning and may be sent home to change clothes.



Question 15-21 Complete the notes below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 15-21 on your answer sheet.

NOTES ON COMPANY DRESS CODE

Aim of formal dress code: to present a (15)……………….to clients Acceptable types of formal clothing: jacket or suit
State of clothes: they must be (16)……………………….and in good condition Footwear: tennis shoes and open toe shoes are not allowed Accessories: ties, scarves, belts and jewellery may be worn
-these must be (17)………………and not brightly coloured Make up: avoid wearing too much make up and perfume.
-these sometimes cause (18)……………………… Hats: hats should not be worn
-head covers in line with religious reasons or (19)…………………..are allowed Dressing down: casual clothing is allowed on some Fridays
-clothing with the (20)………………………..on it is recommended
Breaking the dress code: if advice is repeatedly ignored, a (21)………………………..is given



SECTION 2.

Questions 22-27 Complete the sentences below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the text for each answer.

JLP RETAIL: STAFF BENEFITS.

Whatever your role, your pay range will be extremely competitive and reviewed in the light of your progress. In addition to your salary, you will enjoy an array of excellent benefits from the moment you join the company.

Paid holiday: The holiday entitlement is four weeks per year, rising to five weeks after three years (or in the case of IT graduate trainees, after promotion to programmer or trainee analyst). There are further long-service increases for most staff after ten or fifteen years. Managers, including graduate trainees, receive five weeks’ holiday from the outset.

Pension scheme: We offer a non-contributory final salary pension scheme, payable from the age of 60, to most staff who have completed the qualifying period of five years.
Life assurance: Our life assurance scheme pays a sum equivalent to three times your annual salary to your nominated beneficiary.

Discounts: After three months’ service, all staff are entitled to a 12% discount on most purchases from the company’s stores. This rises to 25% after one year’s service.

Subsidised dining room: In most sites, we provide a dining room where you can enjoy excellent food at very reasonable prices.

Holiday and leisure facilities: The business owns a number of residential clubs which offer subsidised holiday accommodation for staff with at least three years’ service.

Sports clubs: We support an extensive range of sports activities including football, netball, golf, skiing, sailing, squash, riding and gliding.

Ticket subsidies: Ticket subsidies of 50% of the cost of plays or concerts are available. Staff may also take advantage of corporate membership to bodies such as the Science Museum.

Education subsidies: We give generous financial support to staff who wish to acquire leisure skills or continue their education, e.g. through the Open University or evening classes.

Extended leave: Staff who complete 25 years’ service can enjoy paid sabbatical leave of up to six months.

Health services: We have an occupational health service staffed by full-time doctors and health advisers.
Financial help, benefits and discounted deals: In cases of particular hardship, we will help staff with a loan. We have also negotiated a range of benefits for staff such as discounted private healthcare and a car purchase scheme, along with a number of one-off deals with hotels and amusement parks.



Write your answers in boxes 22-27 on your answer sheet.

22. Pay increases depend on the that each member of staff makes.

23. Employees must work a minimum of to be eligible for a pension.

24. Staff may take a holiday at one of the provided by the company.

25. The company pay half the seat price for and plays.

26. The company gives financial assistance for both educational courses and as part of staff development.

27. Employees may be entitled to a if they find themselves in difficult circumstances.



SECTION 3

A On the afternoon of 30th August 1989, fire broke out at Uppark, a large eighteenth- century house in Sussex. For a year builders had been replacing the lead on the roof, and by a stroke of irony, were due to finish the next day, on August 31st. Within fifteen minutes of the alarm being sounded, the fire brigade had arrived on the scene, though nothing was to survive of the priceless collection on the first floor apart from an oil painting of a dog which the firemen swept up as they finally retreated from the blaze. But due to the courage and swift action of the previous owners, the Meade-Featherstonhaugh family, and the staff, stewards and visitors to the house, who formed human chains to pass the precious pieces of porcelain, furniture and paintings out on to the lawn, 95 per cent of the contents from the ground floor and the basement were saved. As the fire continued to rage, the National Trust’s conservators were being mobilised, and that evening local stationers were especially opened to provide the bulk supplies of blotting paper so desperately needed in the salvage operation.

B The following morning, Uppark stood open to the sky. A sludge of wet charcoal covered the ground floor and basement, and in every room charred and fallen timbers lay amongst the smoke. It was a scene of utter devastation.

C After the initial sense of shock, the days which followed the fire were filled with discoveries. Helped by volunteers, the National Trust’s archaeologists and conservators swung into action, first of all marking the site out into a grid and then salvaging everything down to the last door handle. The position of each fragment was recorded, and all the debris was stored in countless dustbins before being shifted and categorised.

D There was great excitement as remnants of the lantern from the Staircase Hall were pulled out from the debris of two fallen floors, and also three weeks later when the Red Room carpet, thought to have been totally lost, was found wrapped around the remains of a piano. There was a lucky reprieve for the State Bed too. Staff who had left the scene at 3am on the night of the fire had thought its loss was inevitable, but when they returned the next morning it had escaped largely undamaged. Firemen, directed by the National Trust’s conservators from outside the Tapestry Room window, dismantled the silk-hung bed and passed it out piece by piece. Twenty minutes later the ceiling fell in.

E The scale of the task to repair Uppark was unprecedented in the National Trust. The immediate question was whether it should be done at all. A decision had to be whatever had not been damaged by the fire was exposed to the elements. Within a month, after consulting many experts and with the agreement of the National Trust’s Executive Committee, the restoration programme began. It was undertaken for three main reasons. After the fire it had become apparent just how much remained of the structure with its splendidly decorated interiors; to have pulled the house down, as one commentator suggested, would have been vandalism. Also the property was covered by insurance, so the repairs would not call upon the National Trust’s own funds. Lastly, much had been saved of the fine collection acquired especially for Uppark from 1747 by Sir Matthew Featherstonhaugh and his son Harry. These objects belonged nowhere else, and complete restoration of the house would allow them to be seen and enjoyed again in their original setting.

F The search for craftsmen and women capable of doing the intricate restoration work was nation-wide. Once the quality and skill of the individual or company had been ascertained, they had to pass an economic test, as everyjob was competitively tendered. This has had enormous benefits because not only have a number of highly skilled people come to the fore – woodcarvers for example, following in the footsteps of Grinling Gibbons – but many of them, for example plasterers, have relearnt the skills of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries which can now be of use to other country house owners when the need arises.

G In june 1994 the building programme was completed, on time and on budget. The total cost of the work to repair the house and its contents came to be nearly £20 million, largely met from insurance. In addition, it made economic sense for the National Trust to invest time and money in upgrading water and heating systems, installing modern environmental controls, and updating fire and security equipment.

H The final stages of restoration and the massive programme of reinstallation took eight months. The family and the room stewards were visibly moved when returning to their old haunts, perhaps the best testament that the spirit of Uppark had not died. But the debate will no doubt continue as to whether or not it was right to repair the house after the fire. The National Trust has done its best to remain true to Uppark; it is for others to judge the success of the project.

Note: The National Trust is a charitable organisation in Britain set up over a hundred years ago to preserve the national heritage.



Question 28-33. The text below has eight paragraphs A-H. Which paragraphs contain the following information? Write the appropriate letters, A-H, in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet.

28 the procedure for sorting through the remains of the fire

29 how Uppark looked after the fire

30 improvements made to the rebuilt Uppark

31 the selection of people to carry out the repair work

32 why the National Trust chose to rebuild Uppark

33 how people reacted to the rebuilt Uppark



Questions 34-37. Answer the questions below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 34-37 on your answer sheet.

34 On what date in 1989 should the original repairs to the roof have been completed?

35 By what method were things rescued immediately from the burning house?

36 After the fire, what did the conservators require large quantities of immediately?

37 Into what did the conservation put material recovered from the fire?
Question 38-40. Choose the correct letter, A,B,C or D. Write the correct letter in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet.

38 The fire destroyed
A all the contents of the ground floor.
B most of the contents of the basement.
C the roof of the house.
D all the contents of the first floor.

39 One of the reasons the National Trust decided to rebuild Uppark was that
A the Meade-Featherstonhaugh family wanted them to.
B the building as it stood was unsound.
C they wouldn’t have to pay for the repairs.
D nothing on this scale had been tried before.

40 Some of the craftsmen and women employed in the restoration of Uppark have benefited because
A they were very well paid for doing intricate work.
B their businesses have become more competitive.
C they were able to work with Grinling Gibbons
D they acquired skills they did not have previously.


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MAIL ORDER BROCHURE IELTS READING

SECTION 1

Want some great clothing ideas for your family? Our key for clothing specials in July:

M for men
W for women
C for children

For under $10
Cotton socks C – made of pure cotton for long wearing Woollen socks C – to keep young feet warm in winter
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Patterned belts W – to go with jeans and other casual clothes

For under $25
Cotton shirts W – for day and evening wear
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For under $50
Blue jeans M W – non-shrink, colourfast, small sizes only Silk shirts M W – plain and patterned, all sizes
Hooded jacket C – protects from the wind, 4 sizes, large strong pockets jacket W – waterproof with zipper front, all sizes
Or you can buy a gift voucher so that someone else can choose. These come in $10, $20 and $50 amounts. Additional monthly specials for July to September
July – $10 voucher with any purchase over $60
August – Travel alarm clock worth $19.95 free with purchases of $80 or more! September – Children’s backpacks. Free with any credit card purchase over $75!

Note: Postage and packing charges.
These are applied to each order as follows:

Within Australia:
$7.95 per address, regular post
$17.95 for Express Delivery Service (overnight)



Overseas:
Surface Mail (allow a minimum of two months for delivery) Airmail (allow around two weeks delivery to most destinations)

Questions 1-7. Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text? In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1. Women’s cotton socks cost less than men’s.

2. Men’s silk shirts are available in more than five colours.

3. Children’s 7-shirts come in a variety of colours.

4. The child’s jacket has four pockets.

5. If you buy clothes worth $80 in August, you will receive a free alarm clock.

6. The charge for special next-day delivery in Australia is $7.95.

7. All clothing is guaranteed to arrive within two months.

Questions 8-14: The list of New Book Releases on the following page has nine book descriptions A-I. Choose the correct title for each book from the list of book titles below. Write the correct number i-xi in boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet.



List of Book Titles

i Field Guide to Native Birds of Australia
ii The Bush on Two Wheels: 100 Top Rides
iii Bush Foods of Australian Aborigines
iv A Pictorial History of the Dinosaur in Australia
v Bushwalking in Australia
vi World Geographica
vii Driving Adventures for 4-wheel-drive Vehicles
viii Survival Techniques in the Wild
ix Encyclopaedia of Australian Wildlife
x Guide to the Art of the Australian Desert
xi Field Guide to Animals of the World

8. Book A
9. Book B
10. Book C

Example Book D vi

11. Book E
12. Book F
13. Book G
14. Book H
Example Book I vii



NEW BOOK RELEASES.

A This book describes the creativity of Aboriginal people living in the driest parts of Australia. Stunning reproductions of paintings, beautiful photography and informative text.

B Pocket-sized maps and illustrations with detailed information on the nesting sites and migration patterns of Australia. This is a classic booklet suitable for both beginner and expert.

C Packed full of information for the avid hiker, this book is a must. Photographs, maps and practical advice will guide your journeys on foot through the forests of the southern continent.

D More than-an atlas – this book contains maps, photographs and an abundance of information on the land and climate of countries from around the globe.

E Australia’s premier mountain biking guidebook – taking you through a host of national parks and state forests.

F Here’s the A-Z of Australian native animals – take an in-depth look at their lives and characteristics, through fantastic photographs and informative text.

G Graphic artists have worked with researchers and scientists to illustrate how these prehistoric animals lived and died on the Australian continent.

H A definitive handbook on outdoor safety – with a specific focus on equipment, nutrition, first aid, special clothing and bush skills.

I Detailed guides to 15 scenic car tours that will take you onto fascinating wilderness tracks and along routes that you could otherwise have missed.




SECTION 2.

Read the advertisement below and answer questions 15-20.

WORK & TRAVEL USA

Do you want to have the best summer holiday ever?
Have you just graduated and want to escape for a unique experience abroad?

Only $1950 will make It all happen! This unbeatable program fee includes:
• return flight from Sydney to Los Angeles (onward travel in USA not included)
• 3 months’ insurance cover
• 2 nights’ accommodation on arrival plus meet and greet and airport transfer
• arrival orientation by experienced InterExchange staff
• visa application fees.

You also have:
• access to a J-l visa enabling you to work in the USA
• an extensive directory of employers
• InterExchange support throughout the program
• 24-hour emergency support throughout the length of the program Call toll-free 1800 678 738

InterExchange has 50 yeors’ experience in international student exchange programs. 18,000 students from around the world travel yearly to the USA on this very program. InterExchange con also offer you work opportunities in other countries.

WHAT IS INTEREXCHANGE? InterExchange, one of the world’s leading operators of international exchange programs and related services:
• is a non-profit, non-governmental organisation
• has 700 professional staff in 30 countries worldwide
• was founded in 1947

InterExchange operates these programs for students all around the world. It offers you trained and travelled staff, plus full support during the application process. You can choose any job that interests you anywhere in the USA, whether that is working in a law firm in Boston, a famous ski resort in Colorado or serving coffee and doughnuts in the buzzing streets of New York. You can select the period you work and the period you travel; you may want to work for 1 month and travel for 3, or work the entire duration of your stay. The choice is yours.

YOU CAN TAKE UP THIS OPPORTUNITY IF YOU ARE:

• a full-time student at an Australian university or TAFE college
• presently enrolled, or finishing this year, or you have deferred a year of study
• over 18 years old by November in the academic year in which you apply to InterExchange
• enthusiastic about the experience of a lifetime
Questions 15-20. Do the following statements agree with the information given in the advertisement. In boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

15. The program cost includes internal flights within the USA.

16. Emergency assistance offered in the program includes legal advice.

17. InterExchange offers similar programs in countries other than the USA.

18. InterExchange is part of a government program.

19. There are no restrictions on the type of job you can do.

20. There is an upper age limit for applicants.

NETSCAPE. File edit view go communicator help



Questions 21-27. Each of the short paragraphs below (21-27) gives information about Arthur Phillip College. Read each paragraph and choose which of the linked sections of the website, A-L, would contain this information. Write the correct letter A-L in boxes 21-17 on your answer sheet.

21. All students receive a transcript of results and relevant award documentation when they end their studies with the College.

22. On enrolment, all students receive automatic membership to the Social Club and Public Speaking Club. Students may choose to participate in any arranged activities. The College encourages and promotes interaction between students and teaching and non-teaching staff.

23. Successful completion and the achievement of an A or B result in some courses will enable students to achieve advanced standing in these subjects if they proceed to university study. For a list of the courses acceptable to a particular university, e-mail us your request with the name of the university and the course you are interested in.

24. Arthur Phillip College is one of the top business colleges in Sydney, Australia. The College offers a wide range of educational and training programs in business and related areas. Its accredited vocational training courses are designed to meet the needs of individual students and industry.

25. At Arthur Phillip College you will learn from lectures, seminars, case studies, group projects, individual assignments and class workshops. Lectures and seminars present concepts and ideas and provide for question-and-answer sessions. Students are expected to take an active role in the learning process through class participation, presentations and projects.

26. Courses at Arthur Phillip College involve an average of 25 hours per week of tuition time, with supervised group study accounting for a further 5 hours per week. At least 10 hours per week of individual study is also recommended for most courses.

27. During this program, you will meet the Director of Studies, teachers and key administrative staff such as the Accommodation Officer and Student Counsellor so that, right from your first day, you will know how each of them can help you during your time at the College.


SECTION 3 THE LACK OF SLEEP

Section A: It is estimated that the average man or woman needs between seven-and-a-half and eight hours’ sleep a night. Some can manage on a lot less. Baroness Thatcher, for example, was reported to be able to get by on four hours’ sleep a night when she was Prime Minister of Britain. Dr Jill Wilkinson, senior lecturer in psychology at Surrey University and co-author of ‘Psychology in Counselling and Therapeutic Practice’, states that healthy individuals sleeping less than five hours or even as little as two hours in every 24 hours are rare, but represent a sizeable minority.

Section B: The latest beliefs are that the main purposes of sleep are to enable the body to rest and replenish, allowing time for repairs to take place and for tissue to be regenerated. One supporting piece of evidence for this rest-and-repair theory is that production of the growth hormone somatotropin, which helps tissue to regenerate, peaks while we are asleep. Lack of sleep, however, can compromise the immune system, muddle thinking, cause depression, promote anxiety and encourage irritability.

Section C: Researchers in San Diego deprived a group of men of sleep between Sam and lam on just one night, and found that levels of their bodies’ natural defences against viral infections had fallen significantly when measured the following morning. ‘Sleep is essential for our physical and emotional well-being and there are few aspects of daily living that are not disrupted by the lack of it’, says Professor William Regelson of Virginia University, a specialist in insomnia. ‘Because it can seriously undermine the functioning of the immune system, sufferers are vulnerable to infection.’

Section D: For many people, lack of sleep is rarely a matter of choice. Some have problems getting to sleep, others with staying asleep until the morning. Despite popular belief that sleep is one long event, research shows that, in an average night, there are five stages of sleep and four cycles, during which the sequence of stages is repeated. In the first light phase, the heart rate and blood pressure go down and the muscles relax. In the next two stages, sleep gets progressively deeper. In stage four, usually reached after an hour, the slumber is so deep that, if awoken, the sleeper would be confused and disorientated. It is in this phase that sleep-walking can occur, with an average episode lasting no more than 15 minutes.

In the fifth stage, the rapid eye movement (REM) stage, the heartbeat quickly gets back to normal levels, brain activity accelerates to daytime heights and above and the eyes move constantly beneath closed lids as if the sleeper is looking at something. During this stage, the body is almost paralysed. This REM phase is also the time when we dream.

Section E: Sleeping patterns change with age, which is why many people over 60 develop insomnia. In America, that age group consumes almost half the sleep medication on the market. One theory for the age-related change is that it is due to hormonal changes. The temperature rise occurs at daybreak in the young, but at three or four in the morning in the elderly. Age aside, it is estimated that roughly one in three people suffer some kind of sleep disturbance. Causes can be anything from pregnancy and stress to alcohol and heart disease. Smoking is a known handicap to sleep, with one survey showing that ex-smokers got to sleep in 18 minutes rather than their earlier average of 52 minutes.

Section F: Apart from self-help therapy such as regular exercise, there are psychological treatments, including relaxation training and therapy aimed at getting rid of pre-sleep worries and anxieties. There is also sleep reduction therapy, where the aim is to improve sleep quality by strictly regulating the time people go to bed and when they get up. Medication is regarded by many as a last resort and often takes the form of sleeping pills, normally benzodiazepines, which are minor tranquillizers.

Section G: Professor Regelson advocates the use of melatonin for treating sleep disorders. Melatonin is a naturally secreted hormone, located in the pineal gland deep inside the brain. The main function of the hormone is to control the body’s biological clock, so we know when to sleep and when to wake. The gland detects light reaching it through the eye; when there is no light, it secretes the melatonin into the bloodstream, lowering the body temperature and helping to induce sleep. Melatonin pills contain a synthetic version of the hormone and are commonly used for jet lag as well as for sleep disturbance. John Nicholls, sales manager of one of America’s largest health food shops, claims that sales of the pill have increased dramatically. He explains that it is sold in capsules, tablets, lozenges and mixed with herbs. It is not effective for all insomniacs, but many users have weaned themselves off sleeping tablets as a result of its application.


Questions 28-40. The passage has seven sections labelled A-G. Which section contains the following information? Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 28-35 on your answer sheet. NB You may use any letter more than once.

28 the different amounts of sleep that people require

29 an investigation into the results of sleep deprivation

30 some reasons why people may suffer from sleep disorders

31 lifestyle changes which can help overcome sleep-related problems

32. a process by which sleep helps us to remain mentally and physically healthy

33 claims about a commercialised man-made product for sleeplessness

34 the role of physical changes in sleeping habits

35 the processes involved during sleep



Questions 36-40. Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage? In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet, write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

36. Sleep can cure some illnesses.

37. The various stages of sleep occur more than once a night.

38. Dreaming and sleep-walking occur at similar stages of sleep.

39. Sleepers move around a lot during the REM stage of sleep.

40. The body temperature rises relatively early in elderly people.


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Would you like to undergo training for OET, PTE, IELTS, Duolingo, Phonetics, or Spoken English with us? Kindly contact us now!

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PRODUCT RETURN IELTS READING


SECTION 1. QUESTIONS 1- 4.

Read the information on The Medicine in the passage below. Do the following statements agree with the information in the passage? In boxes 1- 4 on your answer sheet write.
YES if the statement agrees with the information
NO if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about this in the passage

Example : You must shake the bottle before you take the medicine. YES

The Medicine

• This medicine must be taken as directed.
• Before using, shake the bottle.
• Dose: 50ml to be taken twice daily after the midday and evening meals.
Instructions
• Do not take this medicine on an empty stomach or immediately before lying down.
• If any of the following occur, discontinue taking the medicine and contact your doctor: dizziness, vomiting, blurred vision.
• This medicine is not available without a prescription and is not suitable for children under 5 years.
• Once you have begun to take this medicine you must continue to take it until the bottle is empty, unless advised otherwise by your doctor.
• Only one course of this medicine should be taken in a period of six months.
• Expiry date: 16 February 2004.

1. You should lie down after you have taken the medicine.

2. You must stop taking the medicine if your eyesight is affected.

3. You must stop taking the medicine when you feel better.

4. This medicine is suitable for a person of any age.

Questions 5-9. Look at the notice below. Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER answer the following questions. Write your answers in boxes 5-9 on your answer sheet.

Example: What has been found in some Fancy Foods products? pieces of metal

5. Where can you find the batch number on the jars?

6. How much will you receive for an opened jar of contaminated Chicken
Curry?

7. If you have eaten Chicken Curry from a jar with one of the batch numbers listed, whom should you contact?

8. What information do they ask you to provide about the jar of Chicken Curry you ate?

9. What is the maximum reward Fancy Foods is offering for information about who contaminated their product?



IMPORTANT NOTICE: PRODUCT RETURN

Fancy Foods wishes to inform the public that pieces of metal have been found in some jars of Fancy Foods Chicken Curry (Spicy). The batches of the Jars involved have numbers from J6617 to J6624.The batch number is printed on the bottom of each jar.

If you have any jars with these batch numbers, please return them (preferably unopened) to the supermarket where you purchased them. You can also return them to the factory (Fancy Foods Retailers, Blacktown). Fancy Foods will pay $10 for each jar returned unopened and $5 for each jar already opened.

No payment will be made for empty jars, which do not need to be returned. However, the company’s Retailing Manager will be interested to hear from people who have consumed chicken curry from any of the above batch numbers. In particular, it will be helpful if they can give information about the place of purchase of the product.

Jars of Fancy Foods Chicken Curry (Coconut) and Fancy Foods Chicken Curry (Mango) have not been affected and do not need to be returned.
REWARD: Fancy Foods will pay a reward of $ 10,000 to $50,000 for information which leads to the conviction of any person found guilty of placing metal pieces in its products. If you have such information, please contact the Customer Relations Manager, Fancy Foods Retailers, Blacktown.

Questions 10-13: Look at the extract from a brochure on the following page. From the list of headings below, choose the most suitable headings for Sections C-F. Write the appropriate numbers i-viii in boxes 10-13 on your answer sheet.

Example: Section A vii

10. Section C
11. Section D
12. Section E
13. Section F

List of Headings

i Payment options
ii Save money by not paying interest
iii Choosing your style of furniture
iv Free advice on furnishing your home
V Location of stores
vi Applying for a card
vii Ordering furniture from home viii A wide range of furniture



FABULOUS FURNITURE

Section A: Have you ever wanted to buy a small bedside table? Or a dinner table for 20 people? If you want it, we’ve got it! Fabulous Furniture has Australia’s widest choice of furniture.

Section B: If you visit a Fabulous Furniture store, you can have your furniture – right now – using our Fabulous Furniture Credit Card. When you see something you really want, you can have it straight away, and pay later.

Section C: Unlike most cards, the Fabulous Furniture Credit Card offers a full 60-day interest-free period on every Fabulous purchase – no matter when you make your purchase. This leaves you with more money to spend on other things.

Section D: You may choose to pay the full amount within 60 days. In this case, you pay no interest. You may spread your payments over a longer period. In this case, interest will be charged after the initial 60-day interest-free period.

Section E: Application is absolutely free! Nor are there any annual fees or administration fees. Just fill in the application form and bring it to your nearest Fabulous Furniture store. Your application will be processed promptly and you can begin making purchases immediately after your application is approved.

Section F: We have stores in every major city, so you’re never far away from a Fabulous Furniture store. For our addresses, just check in your local telephone directory.

SECTION 2. QUESTIONS 14-17.

Read the notice on the following page about Student Clubs and Societies. The notice has four main paragraphs A-D. Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers i-x in boxes 14-17 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i English Society
ii Education Club
iii Film Appreciation Society
iv Drama Society
v Music Club
vi Games Society
vii Women’s Club
viii Debating Club
ix United Nations Student Club
x Technical Students’ Club

14. Paragraph A
15. Paragraph B
16. Paragraph C
17. Paragraph D

Questions 18 and 19. Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS, answer the following questions. Write your answers in boxes 18 and 19 on your answer sheet.

18. How do you let the CAS President know you are interested in joining a club?

19. How often is the CAS Ball held?



STUDENT CLUBS AND SOCIETIES

Desperate to find friends with common interests? Urgently in need of student contacts around college? Looking for different cultural and religious experiences? Wanting some good discussion?
Don’t look any further! JOIN A CLUB OR SOCIETY AND HAVE FUN!

A. This club was first started by a group of friends who enjoyed going to the cinema. When our trips became more frequent we realised that there must be others who also shared our love of movies. This club is for those people. Membership gives wide access to other activities like basketball and football as well as barbeques and other social functions. We don’t just enjoy movies.

B. The association has many opportunities to debate and we are a non-political unbiased international organisation which aims to promote international awareness on campus. We establish links and access to the organisation’s agencies and other internationalist organisations and their resources. Our plans this year include discussion groups, guest speakers and to build a model of the UN General Assembly.

C. Whether for fun or debating experience, we discuss everything from personal experience, future society or feminism. This year we plan an internal competition, weekly debates and beginners’ lessons as well as chances to compete nationally. Whether it be to improve your verbal or social skills the society provides both!

D. Want to be a movie star? Then go somewhere else! On the other hand, want to work really hard for great rewards? Then come and join the club where the interesting theatre is created. We usually put on three productions each year. So if you like to write, paint, act, direct or do anything in the theatre, come and put your name down with us.
If you are interested in joining any of these clubs, you can leave a message for the President at the CAS Office in the Student Union Building. And don’t forget the CAS Ball is an annual event! This year it’s being held on 22 December!

It is possible for some students in Higher Education in Britain to borrow money through a government scheme. These loans are called ‘student loans’ and are described in the passage.

Questions 20-27. Read the passage and answer the questions 20-27 below. In boxes 20-27 on your answer sheet write-

YES if the answer to the question is ‘yes’
NO if the answer to the questions is ‘no’
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

20. I’m taking a month’s cookery course at a local college. It’s a private catering college. I’m going a couple of evenings a week, after work. I get a diploma at the end of it. Can I get some help with a student loan?

21. I’m starting a foundation course in September. It’s full time and after a year I hope to get on to a degree course. The fees for the actual course are being paid for by my Local Authority. Am I eligible for a student loan?

22. I finish my first degree in July. I’ve got a place on a Postgraduate Certificate in Education course to start in September. Will the Local Authority pay the tuition fees for this course?

23. Now all her children are grown up my mother says she’d like to finish the studies she was forced to give up earlier in life. She’s 48 now and her course is full-time for a year. Is she too old to get a student loan?

24. I’ve already been given a small scholarship to cover some of my tuition fees. Can I still get a student loan?

25. I’m actually staying with my aunt while I’m at college. Will the Student Loans Company want to know how much she earns?

26. I owed the bank rather a lot of money a few years ago. It’s all paid back now but they won’t lend me any more. Will this disqualify me from getting a student loan?

27. I took a course a couple of years ago, got a student loan, but had to withdraw half-way through. I’ve kept up all my payments on my loan. Am I eligible for a second loan?

STUDENT LOANS: The Government has been funding a loans scheme for students in Higher Education since September 1990. These loans are available as a ‘top up’ to the standard grant. Although the loan is intended to supplement the grant for living costs, eligibility for a student loan is not restricted to those who receive a maintenance grant. The decision whether or not to take the loan is yours.

Eligibility: You are eligible for a student loan if you are a UK resident and are attending a full-time Higher Education course, below postgraduate level, or a Postgraduate Certificate in Education course, provided you start your course before your 50th birthday. Full-time courses last at least one academic year and include sandwich courses which combine time at college with time spent in a workplace.

Eligible courses are offered by colleges, universities, the Scottish grant-aided colleges and other publicly funded institutions providing Higher Education courses. In general, eligible courses include first-degree courses or their equivalents and any other courses for which your Local Authority will pay your tuition fees.

Your financial circumstances: Students who want loans are not ‘means tested’ or ‘credit vetted’ – all those eligible will obtain a loan. This means that:
• The amount of your maintenance grant or tuition fees does not matter.
• Other income, if any, is not taken into account.
• Any previous student loans are not taken into account.
• The income of your parents, spouse, partner or other relatives is not taken into account.
• Your previous financial record is not a consideration.

When to apply for a loan: If you would like more information on how to apply for a student loan in readiness for your entry to Higher Education in Autumn 2003, then you should contact The Student Loans Company from June 2003 onwards. Once in Higher Education, you can apply for a loan at any time in the academic year.



SECTION 3. FIRST IMPRESSIONS COUNT



A
Traditionally uniforms were — and for some industries still are — manufactured to protect the worker. When they were first designed, it is also likely that all uniforms made symbolic sense – those for the military, for example, were originally intended to impress and even terrify the enemy; other uniforms denoted a hierarchy – chefs wore white because they worked with flour, but the main chef wore a black hat to show he supervised.

B The last 30 years, however, have seen an increasing emphasis on their role in projecting the image of an organisation and in uniting the workforce into a homogeneous unit — particularly in ‘customer facing” industries, and especially in financial services and retailing. From uniforms and workwear has emerged ‘corporate clothing’. “The people you employ are your ambassadors,” says Peter Griffin, managing director of a major retailer in the UK. “What they say, how they look, and how they behave is terribly important.” The result is a new way of looking at corporate workwear. From being a simple means of identifying who is a member of staff, the uniform is emerging as a new channel of marketing communication.

C Truly effective marketing through visual cues such as uniforms is a subtle art, however. Wittingly or unwittingly, how we look sends all sorts of powerful subliminal messages to other people. Dark colours give an aura of authority while lighter pastel shades suggest approachability. Certain dress style creates a sense of conservatism, others a sense of openness to new ideas. Neatness can suggest efficiency but, if it is overdone, it can spill over and indicate an obsession with power. “If the company is selling quality, then it must have quality uniforms. If it is selling style, its uniforms must be stylish. If it wants to appear innovative, everybody can’t look exactly the same. Subliminally we see all these things,” says Lynn Elvy, a director of image consultants House of Colour.

D But translating corporate philosophies into the right mix of colour, style, degree of branding and uniformity can be a fraught process. And it is not always successful. According to Company Clothing magazine, there are 1000 companies supplying the workwear and corporate clothing market. Of these, 22 account for 85% of total sales – £380 million in 1994.

E A successful uniform needs to balance two key sets of needs. On the one hand, no uniform will work if staff feel uncomfortable or ugly. Giving the wearers a choice has become a key element in the way corporate clothing is introduced and managed. On the other, it is pointless if the look doesn’t express the business’s marketing strategy. The greatest challenge in this respect is time. When it comes to human perceptions, first impressions count. Customers will size up the way staff look in just a few seconds, and that few seconds will colour their attitudes from then on. Those few seconds can be so important that big companies are prepared to invest years, and millions of pounds, getting them right.

F In addition, some uniform companies also offer rental services. “There will be an increasing specialisation in the marketplace,” predicts Mr Blyth, Customer Services Manager of a large UK bank. The past two or three years have seen consolidation. Increasingly, the big suppliers are becoming ‘managing agents’, which means they offer a total service to put together the whole complex operation of a company’s corporate clothing package – which includes reliable sourcing, managing the inventory, budget control and distribution to either central locations or to each staff member individually. Huge investments have been made in new systems, information technology and amassing quality assurance accreditations.

G Corporate clothing does have potentials for further growth. Some banks have yet to introduce a full corporate look; police forces are researching a completely new look for the 21st century. And many employees now welcome a company wardrobe. A recent survey of staff found that 90 per cent welcomed having clothing which reflected the corporate identity.

Questions 28-33. The passage First Impressions Count has seven paragraphs A—G. Which paragraphs discuss the following points? Write the appropriate letters A-G in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet.

Example: the number of companies supplying the corporate clothing market : D

28 different types of purchasing agreement

29 the original purposes of uniforms

30 the popularity rating of staff uniforms

31 involving employees in the selection of a uniform

32 the changing significance of company uniforms

33 perceptions of different types of dress

Questions 34-40. Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of the passage? In boxes 34-40 on your answer sheet write
YES if the statement agrees with the writer’s views
NO if the statement contradicts the writer’s views
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

34 Uniforms were more carefully made in the past than they are today.

35 Uniforms make employees feel part of a team.

36 Using uniforms as a marketing tool requires great care.

37 Being too smart could have a negative impact on customers.

38 Most businesses that supply company clothing are successful.

39 Uniforms are best selected by marketing consultants.

40 Clothing companies are planning to offer financial services in the future.



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ADVERTISEMENTS IELTS READING

SECTION 1

Questions 1 – 8. Look at the five advertisements, A-E. Write the correct letter, A-E , in boxes 1-8.

A International Language Centre
B Global Language Learning Centre
C Tafe International
D Club Francais
E University of Canberra

Which advertisement mentions

1. up-to-date teaching systems?

2. that the institution has been established for a significant time?

3. examination classes?

4. that arrangements can be made for activities outside class?

5. the availability of courses for school students?

6. language teaching for special purposes?

Which TWO advertisement mentions:

7. a wide variety of language choices?

8. evening classes?

A
INTERNATIONAL LANGUAGE CENTRE
INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY

FRENCH & JAPANESE SUMMER INTENSIVE Also commencing January 2005 Mandarin * Cantonese *ThaiVietnamese *Korean *Indonesian * EnglishSpanish Italian *German * Russian.

For further details contact:Admissions & Information Office5 Bligh Street, 5th. Sydney, 2000. Tel: 295 4561. Fax: 235 4714
B
Global Language Learning Centre
ONE OF THE WORLD’S BEST LANGUAGE SCHOOLS IS NOW IN SYDNEY
LEARN A NEW LANGUAGE IN 10-20 WEEKS, LATEST METHODS
FULL AND PART-TIME COURSES BUSINESS, HOSPITALITY OR TRAVEL   Phone for Appointment 938 0977
C
DO YOU WANT TO LEARN ENGLISH SOMEWHERE DIFFERENT?
Then come to Perth,the Picturesque Capital City of Western Australia. Situated on the beautiful Swan River, Perth offers you…

Mediterranean climate lovely Indian Ocean beaches every sport imaginable multicultural societygovernment owned TAFE Colleges high standards of facilities and staff maximum flexibilityhostel or homestay accommodation   Intensive English Courses Available 5 intakes per year10 week modules multicultural classes optional programsCost: $2000 AUD per 10 weeks  

Study Tours Available English/cultural/tourism

WE PLAN THE PROGRAM TO SUIT YOUR NEEDS For further details, contact: TAFE Intemational, Level 5, 1 Mill Street, Perth 6000, Western Australia Telephone: 619 320 3777
D
French

SUMMER COURSES January 2005 Adults Crash Course 9-19 Jan Intensive 3 or 4 hrs a day. morning or evening, 30 hrs $250 (Beginners and Low Intermediate only)
Adults Normal Course 9 Jan-4 March 10 levels from Beginner to Advanced Twice a week – 2 hrs morning or evening Once a week, Saturday 9am-1.30pm 32hrs $278

High School Crash Course 11-25 Jan Intensive 3 hrs a day, 1pm-4pm Years 8 to 12        24hrs $200 Starts Wednesday 11.1.97   Club Français 27 Claire St. Svanev. Phone 227 1746
E           
UC – UNIVERSITY OCANBERRA Learn English in Australia’s National Capital

The TESOL Centre has more than 24 years’ experience in providing quality language programs for overseas studentsTest preparation, possibility of further academic studyAccess to University facilitiesClasses conducted on campus with opportunity to mix with Australian students

QUESTIONS 9-13. Read the notice about road works below. In boxes 9-

13 on your answer sheet write:

TRUE if the statement is true
FALSE if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the notice

9. The road will be closed for two days and not re-opened until Monday.

10. The road will be open as far as Little Street.

11. Work on the road will continue each weekend for the next month.

12. Temporary traffic lights will operate at intersections with Main Street.

13. There will be bus services to the university throughout the weekend.

MAIN STREET, GATTON RE-DEVELOPMENT

ROAD WIDENING TO AFFECT WEEKEND TRAFFIC AND BUS SERVICES TO THE UNIVERSITY CAMPUS

The next stage in the re-development of the roads in the town of Gatton will mean that Main Street will be closed between Little and Denning Streets from 6am on Saturday, 12 August to 6pm on Sunday, 13 August. The intersections of these streets with Main Street will not be affected. We expect that the work will be completed at this time without further disruption to traffic. Motorists should note that Main Street will be closed over the weekend during the hours indicated.

No university bus services will operate through the area between Little and Denning Streets. However, alternative services will operate on bus routes 566 and 45 between Gatton Road, the town centre and the university. The Transport and Roads Department apologises for any inconvenience caused while improvements are in progress.



SECTION 2


QUESTIONS 14-19. Read the enrolment details for Ashwood College on the following page and look at the statements below. In boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet write.

TRUE if the statement is true
FALSE if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

Example: Overseas students may enroll for a course at the college from their home country TRUE

14. Overseas students must pay a deposit when they apply for a course at the college.

15. Outstanding fees are payable by the end of the first week of the course.

16. Classes are organised according to ability level.

17. There is a break between each lesson.

18. Students may change courses at any time during the term.

19. Any student is permitted to take a week’s holiday during a 12-week course.

ASHWOODO COLLEGE

How to enrol if you are abroad ….

Please complete the Application Form and send this with the correct Non-Returnable Deposit (see below) to: The Overseas Registrar, Ashwood College, 20 Glossop Streer. Midhaven. Tel: 01423-968075: Fox: 01423-968076

1. students send application form to Ashwood college with deposit of £ 100 for course only or £ for course and accommodation.2. Ashwood college checks availability of course and accommodation3. Ashwood college sends student: confirmation letter, invoice, certificate of enrolment, transfer request form
 
4. student returns  completed airport transfer form if required.
5.

Ashwood college confirms transfer
6.
student confirms time of arrival to host family or to Ashwood college
7.
Student arrives in Midhaven and is tested. Interviewed and placed in class
8. student pays any outstanding balance for course and
accommodation

How to enrol if you are in Midhaven

We invite you to visit us and see the school. After an assessment you will be able to reserve a place on the next available course. We have two centres in Midhaven.

Deposits/payment Your enrolment form must be accompanied by the course deposit of £100 or, if you are booking accommodation through the school, your course and accommodation deposit of £200.Any balance of course and accommodation fees must be paid in full by the first day of your course.All bank charges incurred in sending money to Ashwood College must be paid by the student.Deposits and payments are non-refundable and non-transferable. A charge of E20 will be made for any changes made to bookingsConditions Timetable Each hour consists of 50 minutes tuition and a 10-minute break. Public and School Holidays There is no reduction in the fee where a course includes a Public Holiday. except for two weeks at Christmas Age The above centres of Ashwood College do not accept students under 16 years of age. Attendance Students are expected to attend regularly and on time. Students forfeit tuition if they arrive late, are absent or leave before the course endsStudent Holidays Students on long courses except examination preparation courses may take a holiday of one week every 12 weeks without losing their course foe for this period. Location and Time of Courses Ashwood College has two all-year centres and a summer centre in Midhaven. Before entry to the school. students must take an entry test to determine the level of class they enter. We cannot guarantee the time or location of a student’s course although every attempt is made to place students in the centre and at the time of their choice.




QUESTIONS 20-26. Read the information on the Language Institute on the following page. Complete the summary of information below: Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR NUMBERS from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 20-26 on your answer sheet.
Example: Overseas students who study at ….. may choose to spend more of their free time.

TOTARA LANGUAGE INSTITUTE

SUMMARY
: with local students by applying for a room in the 20 ………… Places are available here even for students enrolled on the minimum length course of 21……..…….Class sizes for each course range from ……22…….……students and all the class teachers are well qualified; many of them teach on graduate programmes in areas such as applied linguistics. As a member of the Language Institute, you will automatically be able to join the 23…………… . Hamilton can offer students a wide range of social activities. The city itself lies on either side of the 24……..…… which results in some very 25……….…… views and enjoyable walks in the gardens. The Institute employs an activities coordinator who can help you organise your free time and you may also wish to make use of this service for planning your 26…………… when you leave New Zealand. Remember that a student permit is not valid when you have finished your studies.

THE TOTARA LANGUAGE INSTITUTE NEW ZEALAND:
Study English in a national university with students from many countries.
• 4-week blocks
• 5 hours’ tuition each day
• Examination preparation
• University entry (with appropriate academic and English requirements)
Choice of accommodation for all students – homestays with local families or in Halls of Residence with New Zealand students.
The Totara Language Institute is part of the University of Waikato in the city of Hamilton, in New Zealand’s North Island. Intensive English classes are taught in four-week blocks throughout the year and students may enrol for as many blocks as they wish. Classes are for 5 hours each day, Monday to Friday, and include preparation for several international English language examinations. All the courses are taught by highly qualified teachers, many of whom also teach on Language Institute graduate programmes in second language teaching and applied linguistics. Classes are small, usually from 10-12 students with a maximum number of 15, and normally contain a mix of students from a wide range of countries. Students who study English at the Language Institute become international members of the Waikato Students’ Union. The option is available to move on to university study if students meet the English language and academic entry levels for their choice of programme. The Language Institute provides student support, welfare and activities services. Students are met at Auckland airport on arrival and accommodation is provided with local families or in University Halls of Residence with New Zealand students.

Hamilton, one of New Zealand’s fastest growing cities, is ideally located for a wide range of leisure and cultural activities. The Waikato river, the longest river in New Zealand, flows through the centre of the city, providing a picturesque and park-like setting of riverside walks and gardens. The Waikato region is a diverse agricultural area, rich in historic sites, arts and crafts, hot springs, native forests, mountains and rivers. Within easy reach is an unspoilt coastline; the wild and rugged west coast beaches famous for surfing, and the more peaceful east coast resorts are only a short drive from Hamilton. Further afield the mountains of the central North Island, 3 hours’ drive away, provide superb ski facilities in winter and hiking country in summer.

The Language Institute activities coordinator can assist students to arrange any sport and leisure activities. Assistance is also available for ongoing travel arrangements for students. Students on a visitor visa or work permit may study for a maximum of 3 months. Courses of longer duration require a student permit which is issued for the length of study only.



SECTION 3


Questions 27- 40. Read the passage below and answer the questions from 27-40.

Question 27. From the list below choose the most suitable title for the whole of the Reading Passage.
Write the appropriate letter A-D in box 27 on your answer sheet.

A Pollution control in coal mining
B The greenhouse effect
C The coal industry and the environment
D Sustainable population growth


Questions 28-31. The Reading Passage has four sections A-D. Choose the most suitable heading for each section from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers i-viii in boxes 28-31 on your answer sheet.
LIST OF HEADINGS
i Global warming
ii The dangers of the coal industry
iii Superclean coal
iv Environment protection measures
v Coal as an energy source
vi Coal and the enhanced greenhouse effect
vii Research and development
viii Mining site drainage
28 Section A
29 Section B
30 Section C
31 Section D

A Coal is expected to continue to account for almost 27 per cent of the world’s energy needs. However, with growins international awareness of pressures on the environment and the need to achieve sustainable development of energy resources, the way in which the resource is extracted, transported and used is critical.

A wide range of pollution control devices and practices is in place at most modern mines and significant resources are spent on rehabilitating mined land. In addition, major research and development programmes are being devoted to lifting efficiencies and reducing emissions of greenhouse gases during coal consumption. Such measures are helping coal to maintain its status as a major supplier of the world’s energy needs.

B The coal industry has been targeted by its critics as a significant contributor to the greenhouse effect. However, the greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon involving the increase in global surface temperature due to the presence of greenhouse gases – water vapour, carbon dioxide, tropospheric ozone, methane and nitrous oxide – in the atmosphere. Without the greenhouse effect, the earth’s average surface temperature would be 33-35 degrees C lower, or -15 degrees C. Life on earth, as we know it today, would not be possible.

There is concern that this natural phenomenon is being altered by a greater build-up of gases from human activity, perhaps giving rise to additional warming and changes in the earth’s climate. This additional build-up and its forecast outcome has been called the enhanced greenhouse effect. Considerable uncertainty exists, however, about the enhanced greenhouse effect, particularly in relation to the extent and timing of any future increases in global temperature.

Greenhouse gases arise from a wide range of sources and their increasing concentration is largely related to the compound effects of increased population, improved living standards and changes in lifestyle. From a current base of 5 billion, the United Nations predicts that the global population may stabilise in the twenty-first century between 8 and 14 billion, with more than 90 per cent of the projected increase taking place in the world’s developing nations. The associated activities to support that growth, particularly to produce the required energy and food, will cause further increases in greenhouse gas emissions. The challenge, therefore, is to attain a sustainable balance between population, economic growth and the environment.

The major greenhouse gas emissions from human activities are carbon dioxide (CO2), methane and nitrous oxide. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are the only major contributor to the greenhouse effect that does not occur naturally, coming from such sources as refrigeration, plastics and manufacture. Coal’s total contribution to greenhouse gas emissions is thought to be about 18 per cent, with about half of this coming from electricity generation.

C The world-wide coal industry allocates extensive resources to researching and developing new technologies and ways of capturing greenhouse gases. Efficiencies are likely to be improved dramatically, and hence CO2 emissions reduced, through combustion and gasification techniques which are now at pilot and demonstration stages.

Clean coal is another avenue for improving fuel conversion efficiency. Investigations are under way into superclean coal (3-5 per cent ash) and ultraclean coal (less than 1 per cent ash). Superclean coal has the potential to enhance the combustion efficiency of conventional pulverised fuel power plants. Ultraclean coal will enable coal to be used in advanced power systems such as coal-fired gas turbines which, when operated in combined cycle, have the potential to achieve much greater efficiencies.

D Defendants of mining point out that, environmentally, coal mining has two important factors in its favour. It makes only temporary use of the land and produces no toxic chemical wastes. By carefully pre-planning projects, implementing pollution control measures, monitoring the effects of mining and rehabilitating mined areas, the coal industry minimises the impact on the neighbouring community, the immediate environment and long-term land capability.

Dust levels are controlled by spraying roads and stockpiles, and water pollution is controlled by carefully separating clean water runoff from runoff which contains sediments or salt from mine workings. The latter is treated and re-used for dust suppression. Noise is controlled by modifying equipment and by using insulation and sound enclosures around machinery.

Since mining activities represent only a temporary use of the land, extensive rehabilitation measures are adopted to ensure that land capability after mining meets agreed and appropriate standards which, in some cases, are superior to the land’s pre-mining condition. Where the mining is underground, the surface area can be simultaneously used for forests, cattle grazing and crop raising, or even reservoirs and urban development, with little or no disruption to the existing land use. In all cases, mining is subject to stringent controls and approvals processes.

In open-cut operations, however, the land is used exclusively for mining but land rehabilitation measures generally progress with the mine’s development. As core samples are extracted to assess the quality and quantity of coal at a site, they are also analysed to assess the ability of the soil or subsoil material to support vegetation. Topsoils are stripped and stockpiled prior to mining for subsequent dispersal over rehabilitated areas. As mining ceases in one section of the open- cut, the disturbed area is reshaped. Drainage within and off the site is carefully designed to make the new land surface as stable as the local environment allows: often dams are built to protect the area from soil erosion and to serve as permanent sources of water. Based on the soil requirements, the land is suitably fertilised and revegetated.



QUESTIONS 32-36. Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in boxes 32-36 on your answer sheet.

32 The global increase in greenhouse gases has been attributed to
A industrial pollution in developing countries.
B coal mining and electricity generation.
C reduced rainfall in many parts of the world.
D trends in population and lifestyle.

33 The proportion of all greenhouse gases created by coal is approximately
A 14 per cent.
B 18 per cent.
C 27 per cent.
D 90 per cent.

34 Current research aims to increase the energy-producing efficiency of coal by
A burning it at a lower temperature.
B developing new gasification techniques.
C extracting CO2 from it.
D recycling greenhouse gases.

35 Compared with ordinary coal, new, ‘clean’ coals may generate power
A more cleanly and more efficiently.
B more cleanly but less efficiently.
C more cleanly but at higher cost.
D more cleanly but much more slowly.

36 To control dust at mine sites, mining companies often use
A chemicals which may be toxic.
B topsoil taken from the site before mining.
C fresh water from nearby dams.
D runoff water containing sediments.

Questions 37-40.Do the following statements reflect the opinions of the writer in the Reading Passage? In boxes 37—40 on your answer sheet write:

YES if the statement reflects the opinion of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the writer.
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

37 The coal industry should be abandoned in favour of alternative energy sources because of the environmental damage it causes.

38 The greatest threats to the environment are the gases produced by industries which support the high standard of living of a growing world population.

39 World population in the twenty-first century will probably exceed 8 billion.

40 CFC emissions have been substantially reduced in recent years.

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DINING OUT IELTS READING

SECTION 1


Questions 1-7. Look at the three restaurant advertisements on the following page. Answer the questions below by writing the letters of the appropriate restaurants (A—C) in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet.
Example: It stops serving lunch at 2.30 pm. B
1. It is open for breakfast.
2. It is open every night for dinner.
3. It is only open for lunch on weekdays.
4. It has recently returned to its previous location.
5. It welcomes families.
6. It caters for large groups.
7. It only opens at weekends.
NEW ELECTRICITY ACCOUNT PAYMENT FACILITIES AVAILABLE FROM’ JULY 1998
After 1 July 1998, you may pay your electricity account in any of the following ways:

1. Payments via mail:


(A) No receipt required:
Mail payments to:
Coastside Power
Locked Bag 2760
Southport NSW 3479

(B) Receipt required:
Mail payments to:
Coastside Power
PO Box 560
Northbridge NSW 3472

2. Agency payments (payments directly to the bank): Payments can be made at any branch of the Federal Bank by completing the deposit slip attached to your account notice.
NB: This facility is no longer available at South Pacific Bank branches.

3. Payments directly to Coastside Power Office: Payments can be made directly to Coastside Power Office at 78-80 Third Avenue, Northbridge. Office hours are Monday to Friday, 8.30 am to 4.30 pm.
Payment may be by personal cheque, bank cheque or cash. Note: Payments cannot be made by phone.

QUESTIONS 8-13. Read the information given in ‘New Electricity Account Payment Facilities’ on the above page and look at the statements below (Questions 8-13). In boxes 8-13 on your answer sheet write:
TRUE if the statement is true
FALSE if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage.

Example. You must pay your account by mail. FALSE

8. If you want a receipt, you should send your payment to the Southport address.

9. You may pay your account at branches of the Federal Bank.

10. You must pay the full amount, instalments are not permitted.

11. The Coastside Power Office is open on Saturday mornings.

12. You may pay your account by phone using your credit card.

13. There is a reduction for prompt payment.



CENTRAL LIBRARY. PERSONAL COMPUTERS AVAILABLE FOR PUBLIC TO USE

• 2 personal computers are available, for a fee of $5.00. There is also an ink jet printer attached to each terminal. The library has a number of commercially available programs for word processing and spreadsheets.

• A4 paper can be bought from the desk if you wish to print your work. Alternatively, you can bring your own paper. If you wish to store information however, you will need to bring your own floppy disk.

Bookings: Because of high demand, a maximum of one hour’s use per person per day is permitted. Bookings may be made up to three days in advance. Bookings may be made in person at the information desk or by phoning 8673 8901 during normal office hours. If for some reason you cannot keep your appointment, please telephone. If the library is not notified and you are 15 minutes late, your time can be given to someone else. Please sign in the visitors’ book at the information desk when you first arrive to use the computer.

Please note that staff are not available to train people or give a lot of detailed instruction on how to use the programs. Prior knowledge is, therefore, necessary. However, tutorial groups are available for some of the programs and classes are offered on a regular basis. Please see the loans desk for more information about our computer courses.

SECTION 2

QUESTIONS 14-20. Read the passage about personal computers below and look at the statements below (Questions 14-20). In boxes 14-20 on your answer sheet write
TRUE if the statement is true
FALSE if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

14. There are two computers and two printers available for public use at the library.

15. You can buy floppy disks at the information desk.

16. The information desk is closed at weekends.

17. It is essential to reserve a computer three days in advance if you want to use one.

18. If you are more than a quarter of an hour late, you could lose your reservation for the computer.

19. Library employees do not have detailed knowledge of computers.

20. The library runs courses for people who want to learn about computers.



GOOD REASONS FOR CHOOSING ATLAS ENGLISH LANGUAGE COLLEGE

On an English course with Atlas English Language College, you improve your language skills and make friends from all over the world!

A Because Atlas courses start every Monday of the year, there’s bound to be one that fits in with your academic, personal or professional commitments. Whatever your level of language ability, from beginner to advanced, you can choose to study for any length of time, from two weeks to a full year. Courses match a range of individual requirements, from intensive examination preparation to short summer programmes. Most courses commence at 9 am and run till 3 pm.

B If you take an intensive full-time course, we will help you to select the Special Interest Options which best suit your goals. From then on, our teacher will discuss your work with you on a weekly basis. This means that you should develop the language skills you need – and that you are helped to study at your own pace.

C The popularity and success of any language school depend greatly on the quality of the teachers and the methods they employ. All Atlas teachers have specialist qualifications in the teaching of English to foreign students and are all native speakers. We employ only experienced professionals with a proven record of success in the classroom.

D Atlas’s teaching methodology is constantly revised as more is discovered about the process of learning a new language. Our teachers have access to an extensive range of materials, including the very latest in language teaching technology.

E On your first day at school, you will take a test which enables our Director of Studies to place you at the appropriate study level. Your progress will be continuously assessed and, once you have achieved specific linguistic goals, you will move up to a higher level of study.

F Every Atlas course fee includes accommodation in carefully selected homestay families. Breakfast and dinner each day are also included, so you need have no concerns about having to look for somewhere to live once you get to the school.

G On completion of any Intensive, Examination or Summer course, you will receive the Atlas Course Certificate of Attendance. On completion of a four-week course or longer you will also receive the Atlas Academic Record that reflects your ability in every aspect of the language from conversation to writing. Such a record will allow you to present your linguistic credentials to academic institutions or potential employers around the world.


QUESTIONS 21-26
The text on Atlas English Language College on the above page has seven paragraphs (A-G). Choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B-G from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i-ix) in boxes 21-26on your answer sheet. NB. There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use all of them.

LIST OF HEADINGS
i Recognition of your achievements
ii Courses start every week
iii Other services/Pastoral care/Personal arrangements
iv A personal approach
v Two meals every day
vi First-class staff
vii Up-to-date classroom practice
viii Discovering a new language
ix Monitored achievement

21. Paragraph B
22. Paragraph C
23. Paragraph D
24. Paragraph E
25. Paragraph F
26. Paragraph G



ROBOTS AT WORK

A The newspaper production process has come a long way from the old days when the paper was written, edited, typeset and ultimately printed in one building with the journalists working on the upper floors and the printing presses going on the ground floor. These days the editor, subeditors and journalists who put the paper together are likely to find themselves in a totally different building or maybe even in a different city. This is the situation which now prevails in Sydney. The daily paper is compiled at the editorial headquarters, known as the prepress centre, in the heart of the city, but printed far away in the suburbs at the printing centre. Here human beings are in the minority as much of the work is done by automated machines controlled by computers.

B Once the finished newspaper has been created for the next morning’s edition, all the pages are transmitted electronically from the prepress centre to the printing centre. The system of transmission is an update on the sophisticated page facsimile system already in use in many other newspapers. An imagesetter at the printing centre delivers the pages as films. Each page takes less than a minute to produce, although for colour pages four versions, once each for black, cyan, magenta and yellow are sent. The pages are then processed into photographic negatives and the film is used to produce aluminium printing plates ready for the presses.

C A procession of automated vehicles is busy at the new printing centre where the Sydney Morning Herald is printed each day. With lights flashing and warning horns honking, the robots (to give them their correct name, the LGVs or laser guided vehicles) look for all the world like enthusiastic machines from a science fiction movie, as they follow their own random paths around the plant busily getting on with their jobs. Automation of this kind is now standard in all modern newspaper plants. The robots can detect unauthorised personnel and alert security staff immediately if they find an “intruder”; not surprisingly, tall tales are already being told about the machines starting to take on personalities of their own.

D The robots’ principal job, however, is to shift the newsprint (the printing paper) that arrives at the plant in huge reels and emerges at the other end sometime later as newspapers. Once the size of the day’s paper and the publishing order are determined at head office, the information is punched into the computer and the LGVs are programmed to go about their work. The LGVs collect the appropriate size paper reels and take them where they have to go. When the press needs another reel its computer alerts the LGV system. The Sydney LGVs move busily around the press room fulfilling their two key functions to collect reels of newsprint either from the reel stripping stations or from the racked supplies in the newsprint storage area. At the stripping station, the tough wrapping that helps to protect a reel of paper from rough handling is removed. Any damaged paper is peeled off and the reel is then weighed.

E Then one of the four paster-robots moves in. Specifically designed for the job, it trims the paper neatly and prepares the reel for the press. If required the reel can be loaded directly onto the press; if not needed immediately, an LGV takes it to the storage area. When the press computer calls for a reel, an LGV takes it to the reel loading area of the presses. It lifts the reel into the loading position and places it in the correct spot with complete accuracy. As each reel is used up, the press drops the heavy cardboard core into a waste bin. When the bin is full, another LGV collects it and deposits the cores into a shredder for recycling.

F The LGVs move at walking speed. Should anyone step in front of one or get too close, sensors stop the vehicle until the path is clear. The company has chosen a laser guide function system for the vehicles because, as the project development manager says “The beauty of it is that if you want to change the routes, you can work out a new route on your computer and lay it down for them to follow”. When an LGV’s batteries run low, it will take itself offline and go to the nearest battery maintenance point for replacement batteries. And all this is achieved with absolute minimum human input and a much-reduced risk of injury to people working in the printing centres.

G The question newspaper workers must now ask, however, is, “how long will it be before the robots are writing the newspapers as well as running the printing centre, churning out the latest edition every morning?”



SECTION 3

QUESTIONS 27-32. The Reading Passage on the above pages has seven paragraphs (A-G). Choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs A-B and D-G from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i-ix) in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet. NB There are more headings than paragraphs: so, you will not use all of them.
List of Headings
i. Robots working together
ii. Preparing LGVs for take-over
iii. Looking ahead
iv. The LGVs’ main functions
v. Split location for newspaper production
vi. Newspapers superseded by technology
vii. Getting the newspaper to the printing centre
viii. Controlling the robots
ix. Beware of robots!
Example Paragraph C: ix

27 Paragraph A
28 Paragraph B
29 Paragraph D
30 Paragraph E
31 Paragraph F
32 Paragraph G

QUESTIONS 33 – 40. Complete the flow-chart below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 33-40 on your answer sheet.

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VEHICULAR TRAFFIC IELTS READING

USE OF UNIVERSITY GROUNDS BY VEHICULAR TRAFFIC

SECTION 1


The University grounds are private. The University authorities only allow authorised members of the University, visitors and drivers of vehicles servicing the University to enter the grounds.

Members of staff who have paid the requisite fee and display the appropriate permit may bring a vehicle into the grounds. A University permit does not entitle them to park in Hall car parks however, unless authorised by the Warden of the Hall concerned.

Students may not bring vehicles into the grounds during the working day unless they have been given special permission by the Security Officer and have paid for and are displaying an appropriate entry permit. Students living in Halls of Residence must obtain permission from the Warden to keep a motor vehicle at their residence.

Students are reminded that if they park a motor vehicle on University premises without a valid permit, they will be fined £20

Questions 1-5. Look at the information on the following reading passage about the use of vehicles in the University grounds.
TRUE if the statement is true
FALSE if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

Example: The campus roads are not open to general members of the public. TRUE

1. University employees do not need to pay for their parking permits.

2. Parking in Halls of Residence is handled by the Wardens of the Halls.

3. Having a University permit does not allow staff to park at Halls.

4. Parking permits cost £20 a year.

5. Students living in Hall do not need permission to park in Hall car parks.




PATIENT INFORMATION LEAFLET

The name of the tablet is Borodine tablets. WHAT ARE Borodine TABLETS USED FOR?
Borodine tablets are used to help relieve hay fever and conditions due to allergies, in particular skin reactions and a runny nose. It is not recommended that Borodine tablets are given to children under 12 years of age or pregnant or breastfeeding women.

BEFORE YOU TAKE Borodine TABLETS

In some circumstances it is very important not to take Borodine tablets. If you ignore these instructions, this medicine could affect your heart rhythm.

Are you taking oral medicines for fungal infections?

Have you suffered a reaction to medicines containing Borodine before?

Do you suffer from any liver, kidney or heart disease?

If the answer to any of these questions is YES, do not take Borodine tablets before consulting your doctor.
AFTER TAKING Borodine TABLETS
Borodine tablets, like many other medicines, may cause side-effects in some people.

If you faint, stop taking Borodine tablets and tell your doctor immediately.

In addition Borodine tablets may cause problems with your vision, hair loss, depression or confusion, yellowing of your skin or your eyes.

If you have these effects whilst taking Borodine tablets tell your doctor immediately

Other side-effects are dizziness or headaches, and indigestion or stomach ache. However, these effects are often mild and usually wear off after a few days’ treatment. If they last for more than a few days, tell your doctor.


Questions 6-13. Look at the patient information leaflet on the following page. Match each of the following sentences with TWO possible endings A-M from the box below.
Example

Borodine table should not be given to …… A and M
Questions 6 and 7
Borodine tablets might be used to treat……
Questions 8 and 9
You must ask your doctor before taking Borodine tablets if you are already being treated for ……
Questions 10 and 11
You do not need to consult your doctor immediately if Borodine tablets give you ……
Questions 12 and 13
You must consult your doctor at once if you find Borodine tablets cause……

Possible Endings

A children under 12 years of age.
B a headache.
C an uncomfortable feeling in your stomach.
D symptoms similar to a cold.
E a change in your skin colour.
F anything treated by a prescription medicine.
G a kidney complaint.
H a whitening of the eyes.
I sore or broken skin.
J a fungal infection.
K a feeling of sadness.
L shortness of breath.
M a woman expecting a child.



SECTION 2

WEST THAMES COLLEGE BACKGROUND INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES

West Thames College (initially known as Hounslow Borough College) came into existence in 1976 following the merger of Isleworth Polytechnic with part of Chiswick Polytechnic. Both parent colleges, in various guises, enjoyed a long tradition of service to the community dating back to the 1890s.

The college is located at London Road, Isleworth, on a site occupied by the Victorian house of the Pears family, Spring Grove House. An earlier house of the same name on this site had been the home of Sir Joseph Banks, the botanist who named Botany Bay with Captain Cook in 1770. Later he founded Kew Gardens.

Situated at the heart of West London, West Thames College is ideally placed to serve the training and education needs of local industry and local people. But its influence reaches much further than the immediate locality.

Under its former name, Hounslow Borough College, it had already established a regional, national and international reputation for excellence. In fact, about eight per cent of its students come from continental Europe and further afield, whilst a further 52 per cent are from outside the immediate area. Since 1 April 1993, when it became independent of the local authority and adopted its new title, West Thames College has continued to build on that first-class reputation.


These days there is no such thing as a typical student. More than half of West Thames college’s 6000 students are over 19 years old. Some of these will be attending college part-time under their employers’ training schemes. Others will want to learn new skills purely out of interest, or out of a desire to improve their promotion chances, or they may want a change in career.

The college is also very popular with 16-18 year olds, who see it as a practical alternative to a further two years at school. They want to study in the more adult atmosphere the college provides. They can choose from a far wider range of subjects than it would be practical for a sixth form to offer. If they want to go straight into employment they can still study at college to gain qualifications relevant to the job, either on a day-release basis or through Network or the Modern Apprenticeship Scheme.

Questions 14-20. Look at the introduction to West Thames College below and at the statements (Questions 14-20 ) below. In boxes 14-20 on your answer sheet write
TRUE if the statement is true
FALSE if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

14. Chiswick Polytechnic was closed at the same time West Thames College was opened.

15. Most of the students at the college come from outside the local area.

16. The college changed its name to West Thames College in 1993.

17. There are currently 6000 students over the age of 19 attending the college.

18. Students under the age of 16 cannot attend any of the courses offered by the college.

19. The college offers a more mature environment in which to learn than a school.

20. There are fewer subjects to study in the sixth form of a school than at the college.



WEST THAMES COLLEGE SERVICES FOR STUDENTS

A As a full-time student at West Thames College you will have your own Personal mentor who will see you each week to guide you through your studies, and discuss any problems which may arise. We take a cooperative approach to the assessment of your work and encourage you to contribute to discussion.

B This service provides specialist assistance and courses for those who need help to improve their writing, oral and numeracy skills for the successful completion of their college course. Help with basic skills is also available.

C This service is available to anyone who is undecided as to which course to follow. It is very much a service for the individual, whatever your age, helping you to select the best option to suit your circumstances. The service includes educational advice, guidance and support, including a facility for accrediting your previous experience – the Accreditation of Prior Learning (APL). The Admissions Office is open Monday to Friday 9.00 am to 5.00 pm. All interviews are confidential and conducted in a relaxed and friendly atmosphere. Evening appointments are available on request.

D The College Bookshop stocks a wide range of books, covering aspects of all courses, together with a good selection of stationery. It also supplies stamps, phone cards, blank videos and computer disks. The shop is open at times specified In the Student Handbook in the mornings, afternoons and evenings.

E When students are weary from study and want the chance to relax and enjoy themselves with friends, they can participate in a number of recreational activities. Depending on demand, we offer a range of sporting activities including football, badminton, basketball, table tennis, volleyball, weight training and aerobics. For the non-sporting students, we offer a debating society, video club, hair and beauty sessions, as well as a range of creative activities. Suggestions for activities from students are always welcome.

F This confidential service is available if you have practical or personal difficulties during your course of study, whether of a financial or personal nature. Our Student Advisors can help you directly or put you in touch with someone else who can give you the help you need.

G The College Nurses are there for general medical advice and for treatment of illness or injury. All visits are confidential. First aid boxes and fully-trained First Aiders are also on hand at various locations around the college.

H West London employers have a permanent base in the centre of college, with access to a database of more than 24,000 jobs available locally and in Central London. They will also help you with job applications and interview techniques.

Look at the West Thames College’s Services for Students on the following page. Each paragraph A-H describes a different service provided by the college. From the list below (i-xi) choose the most suitable summaries for paragraphs A, C and E-H. Write the appropriate number (i-xi) in boxes 21-26 on your answer sheet.

NB: There are more summaries than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.

i. A shop for the books and stationery needed to study
ii. Counseling and welfare willing to listen, offer advice or arrange a referral
iii. An Examinations Office arranging exams and issuing certificates
iv. A Registrar’s Office handling all fee payments and related enquiries
v. A Medical service offering on-site assistance with health-related problems vi. A tutorial system for regular one-to-one guidance, support and feedback vii. Careers Advice helping students into employment
viii. An admissions Service providing assistance in choosing and applying for higher education courses
ix. A Student Union representing students on college committees
X. Clubs and societies for students’ free-time
xi. A Learning Support Service supporting students in studying, presenting information and handling numbers. 21 Paragraph A
Example: Paragraph B xi
22 Paragraph C
Example: Paragraph D i

23. Paragraph E
24. Paragraph F
25. Paragraph G
26. Paragraph H

SECTION 3



Read the following passage and answer Questions 27-40

THE DISCOVERY OF URANUS

Someone once put forward an attractive though unlikely theory. Throughout the Earth’s annual revolution around the sun, there is one point of space always hidden from our eyes. This point is the opposite part of the Earth’s orbit, which is always hidden by the sun. Could there be another planet there, essentially similar to our own, but always invisible?

If a space probe today sent back evidence that such a world existed it would cause not much more sensation than Sir William Herschel’s discovery of a new planet, Uranus, in 1781. Herschel was an extraordinary man — no other astronomer has ever covered so vast a field of work — and his career deserves study. He was born in Hanover in Germany in 1738, left the German army in 1757, and arrived in England the same year with no money but quite exceptional music ability. He played the violin and oboe and at one time was organist in the Octagon Chapel in the city of Bath. Herschel’s was an active mind, and deep inside he was conscious that music was not his destiny; he therefore, read widely in science and the arts, but not until 1772 did he come across a book on astronomy. He was then 34, middle-aged by the standards of the time, but without hesitation he embarked on his new career, financing it by his professional work as a musician. He spent years mastering the art of telescope construction, and even by present-day standards his instruments are comparable with the best.

Serious observation began 1774. He set himself the astonishing task of ‘reviewing the heavens’, in other words, pointing his telescope to every accessible part of the sky and recording what he saw. The first review was made in 1775; the second, and most momentous, in 1780-81. It was during the latter part of this that he discovered Uranus. Afterwards, supported by the royal grant in recognition of his work, he was able to devote himself entirely to astronomy. His final achievements spread from the sun and moon to remote galaxies (of which he discovered hundreds), and papers flooded from his pen until his death in 1822. Among these, there was one sent to the Royal Society in 1781, entitled An Account of a Comet. In his own words:

On Tuesday the 13th of March, between ten and eleven in the evening, while I was examining the small stars in the neighbourhood of H Geminorum, I perceived one that appeared visibly larger than the rest; being struck with its uncommon magnitude, I compared it to H Geminorum and the small star in the quartile between Auriga and Gemini, and finding it to be much larger than either of them, suspected it to be a comet.

Herschel’s care was the hallmark of a great observer; he was not prepared to jump any conclusions. Also, to be fair, the discovery of a new planet was the last thought in anybody’s mind. But further observation by other astronomers besides Herschel revealed two curious facts. For the comet, it showed a remarkably sharp disc; furthermore, it was moving so slowly that it was thought to be a great distance from the sun, and comets are only normally visible in the immediate vicinity of the sun. As its orbit came to be worked out the truth dawned that it was a new planet far beyond Saturn’s realm, and that the ‘reviewer of the heavens’ had stumbled across an unprecedented prize. Herschel wanted to call it georgium sidus (Star of George) in honour of his royal patron King George III of Great Britain. The planet was later for a time called Herschel in honour of its discoverer. The name Uranus, which was first proposed by the German astronomer Johann Elert Bode, was in use by the late 19th century.

Uranus is a giant in construction, but not so much in size; its diameter compares unfavourably with that of Jupiter and Saturn, though on the terrestrial scale it is still colossal. Uranus’ atmosphere consists largely of hydrogen and helium, with a trace of methane. Through a telescope the planet appears as a small bluish-green disc with a faint green periphery. In 1977, while recording the occultation 1 of a star behind the planet, the American astronomer James L. Elliot discovered the presence of five rings encircling the equator of Uranus. Four more rings were discovered in January 1986 during the exploratory flight of Voyager 2 2 , In addition to its rings, Uranus has 15 satellites (‘moons’), the last 10 discovered by Voyager 2 on the same flight; all revolve about its equator and move with the planet in an east—west direction. The two largest moons, Titania and Oberon, were discovered by Herschel in 1787. The next two, Umbriel and Ariel, were found in 1851 by the British astronomer William Lassell. Miranda, thought before 1986 to be the innermost moon, was discovered in 1948 by the American astronomer Gerard Peter Kuiper.

Questions 27-31. Complete the table below. Write a date for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet.

EventDate
Example William Herschel was bornAnswer 1738
Herschel began investigating astronomy(27)………………
Discovery of the planet Uranus(28)……………….
Discovery of the moons Titania and Oberon(29)……………….
First discovery of Uranus’ rings(30)……………….
Discovery of the last 10 moons of Uranus(31)………………


Questions 32-36. Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer of the Reading Passage? In boxes 32-36 on your answer sheet write

YES if the statement reflects the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

Example: Herschel was multi-talented YES

32. It is improbable that there is a planet hidden behind the sun.

33. Herschel knew immediately that he had found a new planet.

34. Herschel collaborated with other astronomers of his time.

35. Herschel’s newly-discovered object was considered to be too far from the sun to be a comet.

36. Herschel’s discovery was the most important find of the last three hundred years.

Questions 37-40. Complete each of the following statements (Questions 37-40) with a name from the Reading Passage. Write your answers in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

The suggested names of the new planet started with(37) ……..…….., then (38) ……………., before finally settling on Uranus. The first five rings around Uranus were discovered by (39) …………………… From 1948 until 1986, the moon(40)………………… was believed to be the moon closest to the surface of Uranus.

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MOULEX IRON IELTS READING

SECTION 1

You are advised to spend 20 minutes on Questions 1-14. First, read the text below and answer Questions 1-8.

A. Filling the reservoir: Your iron is designed to function using tap water. However, it will last longer if you use distilled water.
– Always unplug the iron before filling the reservoir.
– Always empty the reservoir after use.

B. Temperature and steam control: Your Moulex iron has two buttons which control the intensity of heat produced by the iron. You can, therefore, adjust the temperature of the iron and the amount of steam being given off depending upon the type of fabric being ironed.
– Turn the steam control to the desired intensity.
– Turn the thermostat control to the desired temperature.
Important: If your iron produces droplets of water instead of giving off steam, your temperature control is set too low.

C. Spray button: This button activates a jet of cold water which allows you to iron out any unintentional creases. Press the button for one second.

D. Pressing button: This button activates a super shot of steam which momentarily gives you an additional 40g of steam when needed. Important: Do not use this more than five successive times.

E. Suits etc: It is possible to use this iron in a vertical position so that you can remove creases from clothes on coathangers or from curtains. Turning the thermostat control and the steam button to maximum, hold the iron in a vertical position close to the fabric but without touching it. Hold down the pressing button for a maximum of one second. The steam produced is not always visible but is still able to remove creases.
Important: Hold the iron at a sufficient distance from silk and wool to avoid all risk of scorching Do not attempt to remove creases from an item of clothing that is being worn, always use a coathanger.

F. Auto-clean: In order that your iron does not become furred up, Moulex have integrated an auto-clean system and we advise you to use it very regularly (1-2 times per month).
– Turn the steam control to the off position.
– Fill the reservoir and turn the thermostat control to maximum.
– As soon as the indicator light goes out, unplug the iron and, holding it over the sink, turn the steam control to auto-clean. Any calcium deposits will be washed out by the steam. Continue the procedure until the reservoir is empty.

QUESTIONS 1-4. Match the pictures below to the appropriate section in the instructions. Write the correct letter A-F in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.

Questions 5-8. Answer the following questions on the Moulex iron using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. Write your answers in boxes 5-8 on your answer sheet.

5. What sort of water are you advised to use?

6. What factor makes you decide on the quantity of steam to use?

7. What should you do if your iron starts to drip water?

8. What could damage your iron if you do not clean it?

Now, read the information below and answer Questions 9-14.

CLASSIC TOURS – COACH BREAK INFORMATION

Luggage: We ask you to keep luggage down to one medium-sized suitcase per person, but a small holdall can also be taken on board the coach.

Seat Allocation: Requests for particular seats can be made on most coach breaks when booking, but since allocations are made on a first come first served basis, early booking is advisable. When bookings are made with us you will be offered the best seats that are available on the coach at that time.

Travel Documents: When you have paid your deposit we will send to you all the necessary documents and labels, so that you receive them in good time before the coach break departure date. Certain documents, for example air or boat tickets, may have to be retained and your driver or courier will then issue them to you at the relevant point.

Special Diets: If you require a special diet you must inform us at the time of booking with a copy of the diet. This will be notified to the hotel or hotels on your coach break, but on certain coach breaks the hotels used are tourist class and whilst offering value for money within the price range, they may not have the full facilities to cope with special diets. Any extra costs incurred must be paid to the hotel by yourself before departure from the hotel.

Accommodation: Many of our coach breaks now include, within the price, accommodation with private facilities, and this will be indicated on the coach break page. Other coach breaks have a limited number of rooms with private facilities which, subject to availability, can be reserved and guaranteed at the time of booking – the supplementary charge shown in the price panel will be added to your account. On any coach break there are only a limited number of single rooms. When a single room is available it may be subject to a supplementary charge and this will be shown on the brochure page.

Entertainment: Some of our hotels arrange additional entertainment which could include music, dancing, film shows, etc. The nature and frequency of the entertainment presented is at the discretion of the hotel and therefore not guaranteed and could be withdrawn if there is a lack of demand or insufficient numbers in the hotel.




QUESTIONS 9-14. Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in boxes 9-14 on your answer sheet.

9. If you want to sit at the front of the coach
A ask when you get on the coach.
B arrive early on the departure date.
C book your seat well in advance.
D avoid travelling at peak times.

10. Your air tickets
A will be sent to your departure point.
B must be collected before leaving.
C will be enclosed with other documents.
D may be held by your coach driver.

11. If you need a special diet you should
A inform the hotel when you arrive.
B pay extra with the booking.
C tell the coach company.
D book tourist class.

12. It may be necessary to pay extra for
A a bathroom.
B boat tickets.
C additional luggage.
D entertainment.

13. Entertainment is available
A at all hotels.
B if there is the demand.
C upon request.
D for an additional cost.

14. With every booking Classic Tours guarantee you will be able to
A request high quality meals.
B take hand luggage on the coach.
C use your own personal bathroom.
D film if you want to.



SECTION 2


You are advised to spend 20 minutes on Questions 15-29. Questions 15-21. Look at the article Clubs for Students below.

Question: Which club would you contact for each of the requirements below?
Write the appropriate letter A-G in boxes 15-21 on your answer sheet. You may use each letter more than once. The first one has been done for you as an example.

Example– you wish to go swimming at 7am every morning. Answer- G


15. You would like to take Spanish classes.
16. You want to join a club that has international branches.
17. You would like an opportunity to speak in public.
18. You would like to take part in amateur theatrical productions.
19. You want to visit some famous sites with a group of other students.
20. You are interested in finding out about part-time work.
21. You want to meet some English people who have started their careers.



CLUBS FOR STUDENTS

There are a variety of Clubs which provide social and cultural activities for those wishing to meet others with similar interests from the same or from different national backgrounds.

A. Commonwealth Trust: Organised discussion meetings, learned talks, cultural events excursions to places of interest and invitations to major British diary events Open to overseas visitors and students.

B. Charles Peguy Centre: French youth centre providing advice, support and information to young Europeans aged between 18-30. Facilities include an information and advice service regarding education, work placement and general welfare rights.
Moreover the centre holds a database of jobs, accommodation and au pair placements specifically in London. Members may use a fax machine a copier and computers for CVs.
Hours Monday: 14.00-17.00
Tuesday-Friday: 10.00-17.00
Membership: £35 per year, plus £5 per month.

C. Kensington Committee of Friendship for Overseas Students: KCOF is the society for young people from all countries. Each month there are some 40 parties, discos, visits to theatres, concerts, walks and other gatherings where you will be able to meet lots of people. A new programme is sent each month directly to members (£5 to join in October, less later in the year). Events are free or at low often reduced prices. Office open 10.30-17.30 weekdays only

D. Royal Overseas League: Open 365 days per year, this is a club with facilities in London and Edinburgh with restaurants, bars and accommodation. There are branches around the world and 57 reciprocal clubs world-wide. Quarterly magazine, literary lectures, annual music and art competitions, and summer and winter programme of events for members. Membership fees overseas students aged 17¬24 £47 per year + initial joining fee £23.50; others £70 per year + initial joining fee £35 (half price after July). Further information from the Membership Secretary.

E. YMCA London Central: Facilities include photography art drama, pottery, language courses, badminton, squash, exercise to music, circuit training, sports clinic, fitness testing and other activities. Hours weekdays 07.00-22.30, weekends 10.00-21.00.
Membership fees: aged 16-17 £25 per year plus attendance charge of £1 30 per visit; aged 18-19 £213 per year; aged 20¬25 £366 per year

F. London Inter-Varsity Club (IVC): IVC is an activities and social club with a varied range of events, from cycling and drama to windsurfing and yoga. Most members are young English professionals, but overseas visitors are welcome. The club arranges restaurant meals, dancing and parties, weekends away around Britain, plus a weekly club night in a Covent Garden bar. There are usually over 25 different events every week run by IVG members for IVC members. To find out more, telephone the club or write (Freepost) to the office.

G. Central Club: Provides accommodation and club facilities. No membership fee. Coffee shop open for all meals swimming pool (open 06.00), multi¬gym, hairdressing salon.



QUESTIONS 22-29. Read the article on International Students House and look at the statements below. In boxes 22-29 on your answer sheet write
TRUE
if the statement is true
FALSE if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage
Example: The club is for overseas students only Answer- False.

22. The club has long-term dormitory accommodation.

23. Membership must be renewed monthly.

24. The club provides subsidised restaurant meals.

25. The club is open to non-members on Tuesday evenings.

26. STA Travel help finance the Students Adviser.

27. The services of the Students Adviser are free to all club members.

28. You must make an appointment to see the Students Adviser.

29. There will be a surcharge for accommodation over the Christmas period.



INTERNATIONAL STUDENTS HOUSE

International Students House is a unique club and accommodation centre for British and overseas students in London. It is located in the heart of London’s West End and is close to all public transport facilities.

ACCOMMODATION

* comfortable accommodation for up to 450 people in single, twin, 3/4 bedded and multi-bedded rooms
* 44 self-contained flats for married students and families
* long and short stays welcomed MEMBERSHIP

Club membership is open to all full¬time students, professional trainees, student nurses and au pairs. Membership costs are kept to an absolute minimum to enable the widest possible access. You can join for as little as one month and for up to one year at a time. Membership entitles you to use the various facilities of the House. It has:
* restaurants
* student bars and coffee shop
* study rooms
* clubs and societies
* aerobics and fitness training
* discos, dance, jazz and cinema
* travel and excursions and much more!

The best way to check out all we have on offer is to drop in any Tuesday evening between 7.15 pm and 8.30 pm for Open House in the Club Room. This is an opportunity for you to meet the staff and other club members, enjoy a free cup of coffee and find out all about what’s going on. You can take advantage of special membership offers. (Useful tip: bring along 3 passport size photographs if you wish to take out membership.)

ADVICE SERVICE: Thanks to the support of STA Travel and in association with LCOS (the London Conference on Overseas Students) International Students House now provides the service of an International Students Adviser. This new welfare service is open to all students at London’s bona-fide academic institutions. It aims to provide welfare support to help students overcome any personal or practical difficulties they may be experiencing whilst studying in Britain. One of the key features of the Advice Service is that the Adviser can be seen during the evenings until about 8 pm, Monday to Thursday.

CHRISTMAS & NEW YEAR: Unable to get home for Christmas? How about joining in the fun at International Students House! Check out our special programme of activity taking place over the Christmas period. Even come and stay – the House will be offering reduced accommodation rates for students wishing to spend a few days in London over Christmas. We’ll also have an exciting New Year’s Eve party so come and join us and ring in the new year in the spirit of internationalism.

SECTION 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 30-41 which are based on the reading passage below.

PAPER RECYCLING

A
Paper is different from other waste produce because it comes from a sustainable resource: trees. Unlike the minerals and oil used to make plastics and metals, trees are replaceable. Paper is also biodegradable, so it does not pose as much threat to the environment when it is discarded. While 45 out of every 100 tonnes of wood fibre used to make paper in Australia comes from waste paper, the rest comes directly from virgin fibre from forests and plantations. By world standards this is a good performance since the world-wide average is 33 per cent waste paper. Governments have encouraged waste paper collection and sorting schemes and at the same time, the paper industry has responded by developing new recycling technologies that have paved the way for even greater utilisation of used fibre. As a result, industry’s use of recycled fibres is expected to increase at twice the rate of virgin fibre over the coming years.

B Already, waste paper constitutes 70% of paper used for packaging and advances in the technology required to remove ink from the paper have allowed a higher recycled content in newsprint and writing paper. To achieve the benefits of recycling, the community must also contribute. We need to accept a change in the quality of paper prod¬ucts; for example stationery may be less white and of a rougher texture. There also needs to be support from the community for waste paper collec¬tion programs. Not only do we need to make the paper available to collectors but it also needs to be separated into different types and sorted from con-taminants such as staples, paperclips, string and other miscellaneous items.

C There are technical limitations to the amount of paper which can be recycled and some paper products cannot be collected for re-use. These include paper in the form of books and permanent records, photographic paper and paper which is badly contaminated. The four most common sources of paper for recycling are factories and retail stores which gather large amounts of packaging material in which goods are delivered, also offices which have unwanted business documents and computer output, paper converters and printers and lastly households which discard newspapers and packaging material. The paper manufacturer pays a price for the paper and may also incur the collection cost.

D Once collected, the paper has to be sorted by hand by people trained to recognise various types of paper. This is necessary because some types of paper can only be made from particular kinds of recycled fibre. The sorted paper then has to be repulped or mixed with water and broken down into its individual fibres. This mixture is called stock and may contain a wide variety of contaminating materials, particularly if it is made from mixed waste paper which has had little sorting. Various machinery is used to remove other materials from the stock. After passing through the repulping process, the fibres from printed waste paper are grey in colour because the printing ink has soaked into the individual fibres. This recycled material can only be used in products where the grey colour does not matter, such as cardboard boxes but if the grey colour is not acceptable, the fibres must be de-inked. This involves adding chemicals such as caustic soda or other alkalis, soaps and detergents, water-hardening agents such as cal¬cium chloride, frothing agents and bleaching agents. Before the recycled fibres can be made into paper they must be refined or treated in such a way that they bond together.


E Most paper products must contain some virgin fibre as well as recycled fibres and unlike glass, paper cannot be recycled indefinitely. Most paper is down-cycled which means that a product made from recycled paper is of an inferior quality to the original paper. Recycling paper is beneficial in that it saves some of the energy, labour and capital that goes into producing virgin pulp. However, recycling requires the use of fossil fuel, a non-renewable energy source, to collect the waste paper from the community and to process it to produce new paper. And the recycling process still creates emissions which require treatment before they can be disposed of safely.
Nevertheless, paper recycling is an important economical and environmental practice but one which must be carried out in a rational and viable manner for it to be useful to both industry and the community.

Questions 30-36. Complete the summary below of the first two paragraphs of the Reading Passage. Choose ONE OR TWO WORDS from the Reading Passage for each answer.

SUMMARY. From the point of view of recycling, paper has two advantages over minerals and Oil in that firstly it comes from a resource which is (30) ……………………. and secondly it is less threatening to our environment when we throw it away because it is (31) ……………………. Although Australia’s record in the re-use of waste paper is good, it is still necessary to use a combination of recycled fibre and (32) …………………… to make new paper. The paper industry has contributed positively and people have also been encouraged by (33) ……………………. to collect their waste on a regular basis. One major difficulty is the removal of ink from used paper but (34)……………………. are being made in this area. However, we need to learn to accept paper which is generally of a lower (35)……………………. than before and to sort our waste paper by removing (36) …………………….before discarding it for collection.

QUESTIONS 37-41. Look at paragraphs C, D, and E and, using the information in the passage, complete the flow chart below. Use ONE OR TWO WORDS for each answer.

VIEW ANSWER KEYS

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Lionel Ramamurthy OET letter by Lifestyle Training Centre

Mr Lionel Ramamurthy, a 63-year-old, is a patient in the medical ward of which you are Charge Nurse.


Hospital: Newtown Public Hospital, 41 Main Street, Newtown
Patient details
Name: Lionel Ramamurthy (Mr)
Marital status: Widowed – spouse dec. 6 mths Residence: Community Retirement Home, Newtown Next of kin: Jake, engineer (37, married, 3 children <10)
Sean, teacher (30, married, working overseas, 1 infant)
Admission date: 04 February 2014
Discharge date: 11 February 2014
Diagnosis: Pneumonia


Past medical history: Osteoarthritis (mainly fngers) – Voltaren
Eyesight due to cataracts removed 16 mths ago – needs check-up


Social background: Retired school teacher (history, maths). Financially independent. Lonely since wife died. Weight loss – associated with poor diet.


Medical background: Admitted with pneumonia – acute shortness of breath (SOB), inspiratory and expiratory wheezing, persistent cough ( chest & abdominal pain), fever, rigors, sleeplessness, generalised ache.
On admission – mobilising with pick-up frame, assist with ADLs
(e.g., showering, dressing, etc.), very weak, ambulating only short distances with increasing shortness of breath on exertion (SOBOE).



Medical progress: Afebrile.
Infammatory markers back to normal. Slow but independent walk & shower/toilet. Dry cough, some chest & abdom. pain.
Weight gain post r/v by dietitian.
Nursing management: Encourage oral fuids, proper nutrition.
Ambulant as per physio r/v.
Encourage chest physio (deep breathing & coughing exercises). Sitting preferred to lying down to ensure postural drainage.
Assessment: Good progress overall
Discharge plan: Paracetamol if necessary for chest/abdom. pain.
Keep warm.
Good nutrition – fuids, eggs, fruit, veg (needs help monitoring diet).

Writing Task:

Using the information given in the case notes, write a discharge letter to Ms Georgine Ponsford, Resident Community Nurse at the Community Retirement Home, 103 Light Street, Newtown. This letter will accompany Mr Ramamurthy back to the retirement home upon his discharge tomorrow.
In your answer:
• Expand the relevant notes into complete sentences
• Do not use note form
• Use letter format




The body of the letter should be approximately 180-200 words.

Sample answer by Lifestyle Training Centre

Ms Georgine Ponsford,
Resident Community Nurse
Community Retirement Home,
103 Light Street, Newtown.

11/02/2014

Dear Ms Ponsford,


Re: Mr Lionel Ramamurthy, aged 63 years.



Mr Ramamurthy requires continuity of care and management, following his discharge today, after undergoing treatment for pneumonia. He was admitted with acute shortness of breath, wheezing, constant coughing, fever, rigors, sleeplessness and generalized ache.

Overall, Mr Ramamurthy has made good progress. He is no longer feverish, and his inflammatory markers are back to normal. He is able to carry out activities of daily living and can also slowly walk independently. However, he still suffers from dry cough as well as chest and abdomen pain. Paracetamol can be administered for the latter if required.

As per dietitian, Mr Ramamurthy has gained some weight, and he would require your help to monitor his diet. He needs to incorporate nutritious food such as eggs, fruits and vegetables in his diet and should intake more fluids.



In order to ensure postural drainage, as much as possible, it is better for him to sit than to lie down. Please encourage him to continue his chest physiotherapy: deep breathing and coughing exercises. He should be kept warm. Should you have further queries, please do not hesitate to contact me.


Yours sincerely,
Charge Nurse.
(Word count: 181)

Submit your OET letters for correction: (for a minimal fee)
https://goltc.in/oet-writing-correction/

OET WRITING TASKS

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THE LAW FOR THE WOLVES IELTS READING

Reading passage 1

“For the strength of the pack is the wolf, and the strength of the wolf is the pack.” Rudyard Kipling, The Law for the Wolves

A wolf pack is an extremely well-organised family group with a well-defined social structure and a clear- cut code of conduct. Every wolf has a certain place and function within the pack and every member has to do its fair share of the work. The supreme leader is a very experienced wolf – the alpha – who has dominance over the whole pack. It is the protector and decision-maker and directs the others as to where, when and what to hunt. However, it does not lead the pack into the hunt, for it is far too valuable to risk being injured or killed. That is the responsibility of the beta wolf, who assumes second place in the hierarchy of the pack. The beta takes on the role of enforcer – fighter or ‘tough guy’– big, strong and very aggressive. It is both the disciplinarian of the pack and the alpha’s bodyguard.

The tester, a watchful and distrustful character, will alert the alpha if it encounters anything suspicious while it is scouting around looking for signs of trouble. It is also the quality controller, ensuring that the others are deserving of their place in the pack. It does this by creating a situation that tests their bravery and courage, by starting a fight, for instance. At the bottom of the social ladder is the omega wolf, subordinate and submissive to all the others, but often playing the role of peacemaker by intervening in an intra-pack squabble and defusing the situation by clowning around. Whereas the tester may create conflict, the omega is more likely to resolve it.

The rest of the pack is made up of mid- to low-ranking non-breeding adults and the immature offspring of the alpha and its mate. The size of the group varies from around six to ten members or more, depending on the abundance of food and numbers of the wolf population in general.

Wolves have earned themselves an undeserved reputation for being ruthless predators and a danger to humans and livestock. The wolf has been portrayed in fairy tales and folklore as a very bad creature, killing any people and other animals it encounters. However, the truth is that wolves only kill to eat, never kill more than they need, and rarely attack humans unless their safety is threatened in some way. It has been suggested that hybrid wolf-dogs or wolves suffering from rabies are actually responsible for many of the historical offences as well as more recent incidents.

Wolves hunt mainly at night. They usually seek out large herbivores, such as deer, although they also eat smaller animals, such as beavers, hares and rodents, if these are obtainable. Some wolves in western Canada are known to fish for salmon. The alpha wolf picks out a specific animal in a large herd by the scent it leaves behind. The prey is often a very young, old or injured animal in poor condition. The alpha signals to its hunters which animal to take down and when to strike by using tail movements and the scent from a gland at the tip of its spine above the tail.

Wolves kill to survive. Obviously, they need to eat to maintain strength and health but the way they feast on the prey also reinforces social order. Every member of the family has a designated spot at the carcass and the alpha directs them to their places through various ear postures: moving an ear forward, flattening it back against the head or swivelling it around. The alpha wolf eats the prized internal organs while the beta is entitled to the muscle-meat of the rump and thigh, and the omega and other low ranks are assigned the intestinal contents and less desirable parts such as the backbone and ribs.

The rigid class structure in a wolf pack entails frequent displays of supremacy and respect. When a higher-ranking wolf approaches, a lesser-ranking wolf must slow down, lower itself, and pass to the side with head averted to show deference; or, in an extreme act of passive submission, it may roll onto its back, exposing its throat and belly. The dominant wolf stands over it, stiff-legged and tall, asserting its superiority and its authority in the pack.



Questions 1-6. Classify the following statements as referring to
A the alpha wolf
B the beta wolf
C the tester wolf
D the omega wolf
Write the correct letter, A, B, C or D in boxes 1–6 on your answer sheet. NB You may use any letter more than once.

1 It is at the forefront of the pack when it makes a kill.
2 It tries to calm tensions and settle disputes between pack members.
3 It is the wolf in charge and maintains control over the pack.
4 It warns the leader of potential danger.
5 It protects the leader of the pack.
6 It sets up a trial to determine whether a wolf is worthy of its status in the pack.

Questions 7–13. Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1? In boxes 7–13 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

7 Wolves are a constant danger to humans.
8 Crossbred wolves or sick wolves are most likely to blame for attacks on people.
9 Canadian wolves prefer to eat fish, namely salmon.
10 The wolf pack leader identifies a particular target for attack by its smell.
11 When wolves attack a herd, they go after the healthiest animal.
12 The piece of a dead animal that a wolf may eat depends on its status in the pack.
13 A low-ranking wolf must show submission or the dominant wolf will attack it.



Reading passage 2

ENVIRONMENTAL MEDICINE

– also called conservation medicine, ecological medicine, or medical geology –

A. In simple terms, environmental medicine deals with the interaction between human and animal health and the environment. It concerns the adverse reactions that people have on contact with or exposure to an environmental excitant. Ecological health is its primary concern, especially emerging infectious diseases and pathogens from insects, plants and vertebrate animals.

B. Practitioners of environmental medicine work in teams involving many other specialists. As well as doctors, clinicians and medical researchers, there may be marine and climate biologists, toxicologists, veterinarians, geospatial and landscape analysts, even political scientists and economists. This is a very broad approach to the rather simple concept that there are causes for all illnesses, and that what we eat and drink or encounter in our surroundings has a direct impact on our health.

C. Central to environmental medicine is the total load theory developed by the clinical ecologist Theron Randolph, who postulated that illness occurs when the body’s ability to detoxify environmental excitants has reached its capacity. His wide-ranging perception of what makes up those stimuli includes chemical, physical, biological and psychosocial factors. If a person with numerous and/or chronic exposures to environmental chemicals suffers a psychological upset, for example, this could overburden his immune system and result in actual physical illness. In other words, disease is the product of multiple factors.

D. Another Randolph concept is that of individual susceptibility or the variability in the response of individuals to toxic agents. Individuals may be susceptible to any number of excitants but those exposed to the same risk factors do not necessarily develop the same disease, due in large part to genetic predisposition; however, age, gender, nutrition, emotional or physical stress, as well as the particular infectious agents or chemicals and intensity of exposure, all contribute.

E. Adaptation is defined as the ability of an organism to adjust to gradually changing circumstances of its existence, to survive and be successful in a particular environment. Dr Randolph suggested that our bodies, designed for the Stone Age, have not quite caught up with the modern age and consequently, many people suffer diseases from maladaptation, or an inability to deal with some of the new substances that are now part of our environment. He asserted that this could cause exhaustion, irritability, depression, confusion and behavioural problems in children. Numerous traditional medical practitioners, however, are very sceptical of these assertions.

F. Looking at the environment and health together is a way of making distant and nebulous notions, such as global warming, more immediate and important. Even a slight rise in temperature, which the world is already experiencing, has immediate effects. Mosquitoes can expand their range and feed on different migratory birds than usual, resulting in these birds transferring a disease into other countries. Suburban sprawl is seen as more than a socioeconomic problem for it brings an immediate imbalance to the rural ecosystem, increasing population density so people come into closer contact with disease-carrying rodents or other animals. Deforestation also displaces feral animals that may then infect domesticated animals, which enter the food chain and transmit the disease to people. These kinds of connections are fundamental to environmental medicine and the threat of zoonotic disease looms larger.

G. Zoonoses, diseases of animals transmissible to humans, are a huge concern. Different types of pathogens, including bacteria, viruses, fungi and parasites, cause zoonoses. Every year, millions of people worldwide get sick because of foodborne bacteria such as salmonella and campylobacter, which cause fever, diarrhoea and abdominal pain. Tens of thousands of people die from the rabies virus after being bitten by rabid animals like dogs and bats. Viral zoonoses like avian influenza (bird flu), swine flu (H1N1 virus) and Ebola are on the increase with more frequent, often uncontainable, outbreaks. Some animals (particularly domestic pets) pass on fungal infections to humans. Parasitic infection usually occurs when people come into contact with food or water contaminated by animals that are infected with parasites like cryptosporidium, trichinella, or worms.

H. As the human population of the planet increases, encroaching further on animal domains and causing ecological change, inter-professional cooperation is crucial to meet the challenges of dealing with the effects of climate change, emergent cross-species pathogens, rising toxicity in air, water and soil, and uncontrolled development and urbanisation. This can only happen if additional government funds are channelled into the study and practice of environmental medicine.———1an excitant is a substance which causes a physiological or behavioural response in a person



Questions 14-19. Reading Passage 2 has eight paragraphs, A–H. Which paragraph contains the following information?Write the correct letter, A–H, in boxes 14–19 on your answer sheet.

14 an explanation of how population expansion exposes humans to disease
15 the idea that each person can react differently to the same risk factors
16 types of disease-causing agents that move between species
17 examples of professionals working in the sphere of environmental medicine
18 a definition of environmental medicine
19 how ill health results from an accumulation of environmental stressors

Questions 20–26. Complete the sentences below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 20–26 on your answer sheet.

20 According to Dr Randolph, people get sick because of ………………. – in other words, a failure to adjust to the modern environment.
21 Vague, far-off concepts like global warming are made more urgent when ………………. are studied together.
22 Rising temperatures result in more widespread distribution of disease because some insects are able to …………………
23 Large-scale removal of trees forces wildlife from their habitat and brings them into contact with …………………
24 Uncontrollable ………………. of zoonotic viruses are becoming more numerous.
25 Collaboration between many disciplines is needed to confront the problems of urban development, pollution, ………………. and new pathogens.
26 Environmental medicine should receive more…………………………. to help it meet future demands.



Reading passage 3

TELEVISION AND SPORT

– when the medium becomes the stadium

A. The relationship between television and sports is not widely thought of as problematic. For many people, television is a simple medium through which sports can be played, replayed, slowed down, and of course conveniently transmitted live to homes across the planet. What is often overlooked, however, is how television networks have reshaped the very foundations of an industry that they claim only to document. Major television stations immediately seized the revenue-generating prospects of televising sports and this has changed everything, from how they are played to who has a chance to watch them.

B. Before television, for example, live matches could only be viewed in person. For the majority of fans, who were unable to afford tickets to the top-flight matches, or to travel the long distances required to see them, the only option was to attend a local game instead, where the stakes were much lower. As a result, thriving social networks and sporting communities formed around the efforts of teams in the third and fourth divisions and below. With the advent of live TV, however, premier matches suddenly became affordable and accessible to hundreds of millions of new viewers. This shift in viewing patterns vacuumed out the support base of local clubs, many of which ultimately folded.

C. For those on the more prosperous side of this shift in viewing behaviour, however, the financial rewards are substantial. Television assisted in derailing long-held concerns in many sports about whether athletes should remain amateurs or ‘go pro’, and replaced this system with a new paradigm where nearly all athletes are free to pursue stardom and to make money from their sporting prowess. For the last few decades, top-level sports men and women have signed lucrative endorsement deals and sponsorship contracts, turning many into multi- millionaires and also allowing them to focus full-time on what really drives them. That they can do all this without harming their prospects at the Olympic Games and other major competitions is a significant benefit for these athletes.

D. The effects of television extend further, however, and in many instances have led to changes in sporting codes themselves. Prior to televised coverage of the Winter Olympics, for example, figure skating involved a component in which skaters drew ‘figures’ in the ice, which were later evaluated for the precision of their shapes. This component translated poorly to the small screen, as viewers found the whole procedure, including the judging of minute scratches on ice, to be monotonous and dull. Ultimately, figures were scrapped in favour of a short programme featuring more telegenic twists and jumps. Other sports are awash with similar regulatory shifts – passing the ball back to the goalkeeper was banned in football after gameplay at the 1990 World Cup was deemed overly defensive by television viewers.

E. In addition to insinuating changes into sporting regulation, television also tends to favour some individual sports over others. Some events, such as the Tour de France, appear to benefit: on television it can be viewed in its entirety, whereas on-site enthusiasts will only witness a tiny part of the spectacle. Wrestling, perhaps due to an image problem that repelled younger (and highly prized) television viewers, was scheduled for removal from the 2020 Olympic Games despite being a founding sport and a fixture of the Olympics since 708 BC. Only after a fervent outcry from supporters was that decision overturned.

F. Another change in the sporting landscape that television has triggered is the framing of sports not merely in terms of the level of skill and athleticism involved, but as personal narratives of triumph, shame and redemption on the part of individual competitors. This is made easier and more convincing through the power of close-up camera shots, profiles and commentary shown during extended build-ups to live events. It also attracts television audiences – particularly women – who may be less interested in the intricacies of the sport than they are in broader ‘human interest’ stories. As a result, many viewers are now more familiar with the private agonies of famous athletes than with their record scores or matchday tactics.

G. And what about the effects of male television viewership? Certainly, men have always been willing to watch male athletes at the top of their game, but female athletes participating in the same sports have typically attracted far less interest and, as a result, have suffered greatly reduced exposure on television. Those sports where women can draw the crowds – beach volleyball, for example – are often those where female participants are encouraged to dress and behave in ways oriented specifically toward a male demographic.

H. Does all this suggest the influence of television on sports has been overwhelmingly negative? The answer will almost certainly depend on who among the various stakeholders is asked. For all those who have lost out – lower-league teams, athletes whose sports lack a certain visual appeal – there are numerous others who have benefitted enormously from the partnership between television and sports, and whose livelihoods now depend on it.



Questions 27-33. Reading Passage 3 has eight paragraphs, A–H. Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A– H from the list of headings below. Write the correct number, i–xi, in boxes 27–33 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i Gender bias in televised sport
ii More money-making opportunities
iii Mixed views on TV’s role in sports
iv Tickets to top matches too expensive
v A common misperception
vi Personal stories become the focus
vii Sports people become stars
viii Rules changed to please viewers
ix Lower-level teams lose out
x Skill levels improve
xi TV appeal influences sports’ success

27 Paragraph B
28 Paragraph C
29 Paragraph D
30 Paragraph E
31 Paragraph F
32 Paragraph G
33 Paragraph H

Questions 34–37. Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?

In boxes 34–37 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

34 Television networks were slow to recognise opportunities to make money from televised sport.

35 The average sports fan travelled a long way to watch matches before live television broadcasts.

36 Television has reduced the significance of an athlete’s amateur status.

37 The best athletes are now more interested in financial success rather than sporting achievement.



Questions 38–40. Complete the notes below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 38–40 on your answer sheet.

EFFECT OF TELEVISION ON INDIVIDUAL SPORTS

Ice skating – viewers find ‘figures’ boring so they are replaced with a 38………………..Back-passing banned in football. Tour de France great for TV, but wrestling initially dropped from Olympic Games due to 39………………..Beach volleyball aimed at 40………………..

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WALKING WITH DINOSAURS IELTS RADING

Reading passage 1

You should ideally spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.

Peter L. Falkingham and his colleagues at Manchester University are developing techniques which look set to revolutionize our understanding of how dinosaurs and other extinct animals behaved.

A. The media image of palaeontologists who study prehistoric life is often of field workers camped in the desert in the hot sun, carefully picking away at the rock surrounding a large dinosaur bone. But Peter Falkingham has done little of that for a while now. Instead, he devotes himself to his computer. Not because he has become inundated with paperwork, but because he is a new kind of paleontologist: a computational paleontologist.

B. What few people may consider is that uncovering a skeleton, or discovering a new species, is where the research begins, not where it ends. What we really want to understand is how the extinct animals and plants behaved in their natural habitats. Dr Bill Sellers and Phil Manning from the University of Manchester use a ‘genetic algorithm’ – a kind of computer code that can change itself and ‘evolve’ – to explore how extinct animals like dinosaurs, and our own early ancestors, walked and stalked.

C. The fossilized bones of a complete dinosaur skeleton can tell scientists a lot about the animal, but they do not make up the complete picture and the computer can try to fill the gap. The computer model is given a digitized skeleton and the locations of known muscles. The model then randomly activates the muscles. This, perhaps unsurprisingly, results almost without fail in the animal falling on its face. So the computer alters the activation pattern and tries again … usually to similar effect. The modelled dinosaurs quickly ‘evolve’. If there is any improvement, the computer discards the old pattern and adopts the new one as the base for alteration. Eventually, the muscle activation pattern evolves a stable way of moving, the best possible solution is reached, and the dinosaur can walk, run, chase or graze. Assuming natural selection evolves the best possible solution too, the modelled animal should be moving in a manner similar to its now-extinct counterpart. And indeed, using the same method for living animals (humans, emu and ostriches) similar top speeds were achieved on the computer as in reality. By comparing their cyberspace results with real measurements of living species, the Manchester team of paleontologists can be confident in the results computed showing how extinct prehistoric animals such as dinosaurs moved.

D. The Manchester University team have used the computer simulations to produce a model of a giant meat-eating dinosaur. lt is called an acrocanthosaurus which literally means ‘high spined lizard’ because of the spines which run along its backbone. It is not really known why they are there but scientists have speculated they could have supported a hump that stored fat and water reserves. There are also those who believe that the spines acted as a support for a sail. Of these, one half think it was used as a display and could be flushed with blood and the other half think it was used as a temperature-regulating device. It may have been a mixture of the two. The skull seems out of proportion with its thick, heavy body because it is so narrow and the jaws are delicate and fine. The feet are also worthy of note as they look surprisingly small in contrast to the animal as a whole. It has a deep broad tail and powerful leg muscles to aid locomotion. It walked on its back legs and its front legs were much shorter with powerful claws.

E. Falkingham himself is investigating fossilized tracks, or footprints, using computer simulations to help analyze how extinct animals moved. Modern-day trackers who study the habitats of wild animals can tell you what animal made a track, whether that animal was walking or running, sometimes even the sex of the animal. But a fossil track poses a more considerable challenge to interpret in the same way. A crucial consideration is knowing what the environment including the mud, or sediment, upon which the animal walked was like millions of years ago when the track was made. Experiments can answer these questions but the number of variables is staggering. To physically recreate each scenario with a box of mud is extremely time-consuming and difficult to repeat accurately. This is where computer simulation comes in.

F. Falkingham uses computational techniques to model a volume of mud and control the moisture content, consistency, and other conditions to simulate the mud of prehistoric times. A footprint is then made in the digital mud by a virtual foot. This footprint can be chopped up and viewed from any angle and stress values can be extracted and calculated from inside it. By running hundreds of these simulations simultaneously on supercomputers, Falkingham can start to understand what types of footprint would be expected if an animal moved in a certain way over a given kind of ground. Looking at the variation in the virtual tracks, researchers can make sense of fossil tracks with greater confidence.

G. The application of computational techniques in paleontology is becoming more prevalent every year. As computer power continues to increase, the range of problems that can be tackled and questions that can be answered will only expand.



Question 1-6

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1? In boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet, write.

YES, if the statement agrees with the information
NO, if the statement contradicts with the information
NOT GIVEN, if there is no information on this

1. In his study of prehistoric life, Peter Falkinghom rarely spends time on outdoor research those days.

2. Several attempts are usually needed before the computer model of a dinosaur used by Sellers and Manning manages to stay upright.

3. When the Sellers and Manning computer model was used for people, it showed them moving faster than they are physically able to.

4. Some palaeontologists have expressed reservations about the conclusions reached by the Manchester team concerning the movement of dinosaurs.

5. An experienced tracker can analyse fossil footprints as easily as those made by live animals.

6. Research carried out into the composition of prehistoric mud has been found to be inaccurate.

Questions 7-9

Label the diagram below.

Choose NO MORE THAN ONE WORD from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 7-9 on your answer sheet.

Dinosaur’s name comes from spines. One theory: they were necessary to hold up a 7…………………. which helped control body heat. Skull is 8………………………… compared with rest of body. 9…………………… made easier by wide tail and highly developed muscles in legs.

Question 10-13 Complete the flow-chart below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer

Peter Falkingham’s computer model.

Mud is simulated with attention to its posture and thickness and how much 10 it contains.

A virtual foot produces a footprint in the mud

The footprint is dissected and examined from all angles

Level of 11……………… are measured within the footprint.

Multiple simulations relate footprints to different types of 12…………………

More accurate interpretation of 13………………. is possible


Reading Passage 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.

The robots are coming

What is the current state of play in Artificial Intelligence?

A. Can robots advance so far that they become the ultimate threat to our existence? Some scientists say no, and dismiss the very idea of Artificial Intelligence. The human brain, they argue, is the most complicated system ever created, and any machine designed to reproduce human thought is bound to fail. Physicist Roger Penrose of Oxford University and others believe that machines are physically incapable of human thought. Colin McGinn of Rutgers University backs this up when he says that Artificial Intelligence ‘is like sheep trying to do complicated psychoanalysis. They just don’t have the conceptual equipment they need in their limited brains’.

B. Artificial Intelligence, or Al, is different from most technologies in that scientists still understand very little about how intelligence works. Physicists have a good understanding of Newtonian mechanics and the quantum theory of atoms and molecules, whereas the basic laws of intelligence remain a mystery. But a sizable number of mathematicians and computer scientists, who are specialists in the area, are optimistic about the possibilities. To them, it is only a matter of time before a thinking machine walks out of the laboratory. Over the years, various problems have impeded all efforts to create robots. To attack these difficulties, researchers tried to use the ‘top-down approach’, using a computer in an attempt to program all the essential rules onto a single disc. By inserting this into a machine, it would then become self-aware and attain human-like intelligence.

C. In the 1950s and 1960s, great progress was made, but the shortcomings of these prototype robots soon became clear. They were huge and took hours to navigate across a room. Meanwhile, a fruit fly, with a brain containing only a fraction of the computing power, can effortlessly navigate in three dimensions. Our brains, like the fruit fly’s, unconsciously recognize what we see by performing countless calculations. This unconscious awareness of patterns is exactly what computers are missing. The second problem is the robots’ lack of common sense. Humans know that water is wet and that mothers are older than their daughters. But there is no mathematics that can express these truths. Children learn the intuitive laws of biology and physics by interacting with the real world. Robots know only what has been programmed into them.

D. Because of the limitations of the top-down approach to Artificial Intelligence, attempts have been made to use a ‘bottom-up’ approach instead – that is, to try to imitate evolution and the way a baby learns. Rodney Brooks was the director of MIT’s Artificial Intelligence Laboratory, famous for its lumbering ‘top-down’ walking robots. He changed the course of research when he explored the unorthodox idea of tiny ‘insectoid’ robots that learned to walk by bumping into things instead of computing mathematically the precise position of their feet. Today many of the descendants of Brooks’ insectoid robots are on Mars gathering data for NASA (The National Aeronautics and Space Administration), running across the dusty landscape of the planet. For all their successes in mimicking the behaviour of insects, however, robots using neural networks have performed miserably when their programmers have tried to duplicate in them the behaviour of higher organisms such as mammals. MIT’s Marvin Minsky summarises the problems of Al: ‘The history of Al is sort of funny because the first real accomplishments were beautiful things, like a machine that could do well in a maths course. But then we started to try to make machines that could answer questions about simple children’s stories. There’s no machine today that can do that”

E. There are people who believe that eventually there will be a combination between the top- down and bottom-up, which may provide the key to Artificial Intelligence. As adults, we blend the two approaches. It has been suggested that our emotions represent the quality that most distinguishes us as human, that it is impossible for machines ever to have emotions. Computer expert Hans Moravec thinks that in the future robots will be programmed with emotions such as fear to protect themselves so that they can signal to humans when their batteries are running low, for example. Emotions are vital in decision-making. People who have suffered a certain kind of brain injury lose the ability to experience emotions and become unable to make decisions. Without emotions to guide them, they debate endlessly over their options. Moravec points out that as robots become more intelligent and are able to make choices, they could likewise become paralysed with indecision. To aid them, robots of the future might need to have emotions hardwired into their brains.

F. There is no universal consensus as to whether machines can be conscious, or even, in human terms, what consciousness means. Minsky suggests the thinking process in our brain is not localised but spread out, with different centres competing with one another at any given time. Consciousness may then be viewed as a sequence of thoughts and images issuing from these different, smaller ‘minds’, each one competing for our attention. Robots might eventually attain a ‘silicon consciousness’. Robots, in fact, might one day embody an architecture for thinking and processing information that is different from ours-but also indistinguishable. If that happens, the question of whether they really ‘understand’ becomes largely irrelevant. A robot that has perfect mastery of syntax, for all practical purposes, understands what is being said.



Questions 14-20. Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs A-F.
Write the correct letter A-F in boxes 14-20 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once. Which paragraph contains the following information?

14. An insect that proves the superiority of natural intelligence over Artificial Intelligence
15. Robots being able to benefit from their mistakes
16. Many researchers not being put off believing that Artificial Intelligence will eventually be developed
17. An innovative approach that is having limited success
18. The possibility of creating Artificial Intelligence being doubted by some academics
19. No generally accepted agreement of what our brains do
20. Robots not being able to extend the* intelligence in the same way as humans.

Questions 21-23
Look at the following people (Questions 21-23) and the list of statements below. Match each person with the correct statement A-E. Write the correct letter A-E in boxes 21-23 on your answer sheet.

21. Colin McGinn
22. Marvin Minsky
23. Hans Moravec

Questions 24-26

Complete the summary below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.

When will we have a thinking machine?
Despite some advances, early robots had certain weaknesses. They were given the information they needed on a 24……………………. This was known as the ‘top-down’ approach and enabled them to do certain tasks but they were unable to recognise 25……………………. Nor did they have any
intuition or ability to make decisions based on experience. Rodney Brooks tried a different approach. Robots similar to those invented by Brooks are to be found on 26………………. where they are collecting information.



Reading Passage 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading Passage 3 below.

Endangered languages


A. ‘Nevermind whales, save the languages’, says Peter Monaghan, a graduate of the Australian National University Worried about the loss of rainforests and the ozone. At linguistics meetings in the US, where the layer? Well, neither of those is doing any worse than endangered-language issue has of late been a large majority of the 6,000 to 7,000 languages that something of a flavour of the month, there is remain in use on Earth. One-half of the survivors will growing evidence that not all approaches to the almost certainly be gone by 2050, while 40% more preservation of languages will be particularly will probably be well on their way out. In their place, helpful. Some linguists are boasting, for example, almost all humans will speak one of a handful of more and more sophisticated means of capturing mega languages – Mandarin, English, Spanish.

B. Linguists know what causes languages to disappear, but less often remarked is what happens on the way to disappearance: languages’ vocabularies, grammars and expressive potential all diminish as one language is replaced by another. ‘Say a community goes over from speaking a traditional Aboriginal language to speaking a creole*,’ says Australian Nick Evans, a leading authority on Aboriginal languages, ‘you leave behind a language where there’s a very fine vocabulary for the landscape. All that is gone in a creole. You’ve just got a few words like ‘gum tree’ or whatever. As speakers become less able to express the wealth of knowledge that has filled ancestors’ lives with meaning over millennia, it’s no wonder that communities tend to become demoralised.’

C. If the losses are so huge, why are relatively few linguists combating the situation? Australian linguists, at least, have achieved a great deal in terms of preserving traditional languages. Australian governments began in the 1970s to support an initiative that has resulted in good documentation of most of the 130 remaining Aboriginal languages. In England, another Australian, Peter Austin, has directed one of the world’s most active efforts to limit language loss, at the University of London. Austin heads a programme that has trained many documentary linguists in England as well as in language-loss hotspots such as West Africa and South America.

D. At linguistics meetings in the US, where the endangered-language issue has of late been something of a flavour of the month, there is growing evidence that not all approaches to the preservation of languages will be particularly helpful. Some linguists are boasting, for example, of more and more sophisticated means of capturing languages: digital recording and storage, and internet and mobile phone technologies. But these are encouraging the ‘quick dash’ style of recording trip: fly-in, switch on a digital recorder, fly home, download to the hard drive, and store gathered material for future research. That’s not quite what some endangered-language specialists have been seeking for more than 30 years. Most loud and untiring has been Michael Krauss, of the University of Alaska. He has often complained that linguists are playing with non- essentials while most of their raw data is disappearing.

E. Who is to blame? That prominent linguist Noam Chomsky, say Krauss and many others. Or, more precisely, they blame those linguists who have been obsessed with his approaches. Linguists who go out into communities to study, document and describe languages, argue that theoretical linguists, who draw conclusions about how languages work, have had so much influence that linguistics has largely ignored the continuing disappearance of languages. Chomsky, from his post at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology, has been the great man of theoretical linguistics for far longer than he has been known as a political commentator. His landmark work of 1957 argues that all languages exhibit certain universal grammatical features, encoded in the human mind. American linguists, in particular, have focused largely on theoretical concerns ever since, even while doubts have mounted about Chomsky’s universal.

F. Austin and Co. are in no doubt that because languages are unique, even if they do tend to have common underlying features, creating dictionaries and grammars requires prolonged and dedicated work. This requires that documentary linguists observe not only languages’ structural subtleties, but also related social, historical and political factors. Such work calls for persistent funding of field scientists who may sometimes have to venture into harsh and even hazardous places. Once there, they may face difficulties such as community suspicion. As Nick Evans says, a community who speak an endangered language may have reasons to doubt or even oppose efforts to preserve it. They may have seen support and funding for such work come and go. They may have given up using the language with their children, believing they will benefit from speaking a more widely understood one. Plenty of students continue to be drawn to the intellectual thrill of linguistics fieldwork. That’s all the more reason to clear away barriers, contend, Evans, Austin and others.

G. The highest barrier, they agree, is that the linguistics profession’s emphasis on theory gradually wears down the enthusiasm of linguists who work in communities. Chomsky disagrees. He has recently begun to speak in support of language preservation. But his linguistic, as opposed to humanitarian, the argument is, let’s say, unsentimental: the loss of a language, he states, ‘is much more of a tragedy for linguists whose interests are mostly theoretical, like me, than for linguists who focus on describing specific languages, since it means the permanent loss of the most relevant data for general theoretical work’. At the moment, few institutions award doctorates for such work, and that’s the way it should be, he reasons. In linguistics, as in every other discipline, he believes that good descriptive work requires thorough theoretical understanding and should also contribute to building new theory. But that’s precisely what documentation does, objects Evans. The process of immersion in a language, to extract, analyse and sum it up, deserves a PhD because it is ‘the most demanding intellectual task a linguist can engage in’.



Questions 27-32

Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer In Reading Passage 3?

In boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet, write

YES, if the statement agrees with the information
NO, if the statement contradicts with the information
NOT GIVEN, if there is no information on this

27. By 2050 only a small number of languages will be flourishing.
28. Australian academics’ efforts to record existing Aboriginal languages have been too limited.
29. The use of technology In language research is proving unsatisfactory in some respects.
30. Chomsky’s political views have overshadowed his academic work.
31. Documentary linguistics studies require long-term financial support.
32. Chomsky’s attitude to disappearing languages is too emotional.

Questions 33-36. Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

33. The writer mentions rainforests and the ozone layer

A. because he believes anxiety about environmental issues is unfounded.
B. to demonstrate that academics in different disciplines share the same problems.
C. because they exemplify what is wrong with the attitudes of some academics.
D. to make the point that the public should be equally concerned about languages.

34. What does Nick Evans say about speakers of a creole?

A. They lose the ability to express ideas which are part of their culture.
B. Older and younger members of the community have difficulty communicating.
C. They express their ideas more clearly and concisely than most people.
D. Accessing practical information causes problems for them.

35. What is similar about West Africa and South America, from the linguist’s point of view?

A. The English language is widely used by academics and teachers.
B. The documentary linguists who work there were trained by Australians.
C. Local languages are disappearing rapidly in both places.
D. There are now only a few undocumented languages there.

36. Michael Krauss has frequently pointed out that

A. linguists are failing to record languages before they die out.
B. linguists have made poor use of improvements in technology.
C. linguistics has declined in popularity as an academic subject.
D. linguistics departments are underfunded in most universities.

Questions 37-40
Complete each sentence with the correct ending A-O below.
Write the correct letter A-O in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

37. Linguists like Peter Austin believe that every language is unique

38. Nick Evans suggests a community may resist attempts to save its language

39. Many young researchers are interested in doing practical research

40. Chomsky supports work in descriptive linguistics



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