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IELTS writing task 1 vocabulary and grammar

VOCABULARY COACH

When tasked with describing trends in IELTS Writing Task 1, whether in a line graph, bar chart, or when comparing multiple charts, two main grammatical structures prove effective.

By paying attention to both the accuracy and range of your grammar usage, you can significantly enhance your IELTS Writing Task 1 score. Remember, the goal is not just complexity for its own sake, but a natural and varied application of grammar that elevates the overall quality of your response.

Apply these simple formulas to your sentence construction and see.

Noun phrase + verb + adverb

Eg: The price of oil rose gradually.
Eg: The price of oil has risen dramatically.

There + be + adj. + noun + in + noun phrase

Eg: There was a gradual rise in the price of oil.
Eg. There has been a sharp drop in the price of oil.


List of possible adjective, adverbs, nouns, and verbs for IETLS writing task 1 sentence formation.

AdjectivesAdverbsNounsVerbs
SubstantialSignificantlyFluctuationFluctuate
SignificantGraduallyOscillationOscillate
RapidSteadilyDeclinationDecline
SteadyMarkedlyEscalationEscalate
ConsiderableGraduallyVariationVary
SharpSharplyUpturnIncrease
GradualConsistentlyDownturnDecrease
SuddenSubstantiallyGrowthGrow
ConsistentMarginallyRegressionRegress
MarginalSuddenlyExpansionExpand
ProlificModeratelyTransformationTransform
IntensiveNotablyInclineIncline
ExtensiveConsiderablyDiminutionDiminish
RobustRemarkablyAugmentationAugment
SubtleConsistentlyAmplificationAmplify
InsignificantSubtlyElevationElevate
NegligibleExceedinglyPlummetPlummet
MeasurableIncessantlyAscensionAscend
VastProfoundlyReductionReduce
AmpleInvariablyAscendanceRise
InadequateEvidentlySurgeSoar
ScarceIncrediblyDropDrop
TremendousUnmistakablyUpswingUptick
ComprehensiveIncrediblyUpsurgeSkyrocket
AbundantUnquestionablyEbbEbb
AdequateProfoundlyFlowFlow
SparseUnmistakablyPlungePlunge
CopiousSubtlyAscentAscend
InnumerableUndoubtedlyDescentDescend
LimitlessEvidentlySlumpSlump
CountlessIncontestablyDecrementDecrement
RocketingExceedinglyUpward trendRocket
SoaringDramaticallySpikeSoar
SurgingRapidlySkyrocketPropel
ExponentialAbruptlySkyrocketSoar
MeteoricSuddenlyUpsurgeSkyrocket
SporadicSteeplyPropelMobilize
DramaticPrecipitouslyPlungeDiversify
UnprecedentedExponentiallyInclineFluctuate
PhenomenalSteadilyAscendanceConsolidate
RemarkableImpressivelyDescentStagnate

Represents – synonyms

  1. outline
  2. describe
  3. depict
  4. portray
  5. illustrate
  6. detail
  7. represent
  8. sketch
  9. define
  10. explain
  11. characterize
  12. specify
  13. chart
  14. map out
  15. draw
  16. narrate
  17. express
  18. set forth
  19. articulate
  20. draft
  21. delineates

In contrast synonyms:

  1. On the other hand
  2. Conversely
  3. On the flip side
  4. On the contrary
  5. However
  6. Nevertheless
  7. Nonetheless
  8. But
  9. Yet
  10. While
  11. Whereas
  12. Alternatively
  13. In comparison
  14. In opposition
  15. Differently
  16. Notwithstanding
  17. In spite of that
  18. Nonetheless
  19. Nevertheless

Increased synonyms:

  1. Augmented: Added to or made greater in amount or number.
  2. Elevated: Raised to a higher level or position.
  3. Expanded: Made larger or more extensive.
  4. Enhanced: Improved or intensified in quality, value, or extent.
  5. Heightened: Increased or intensified in degree or intensity.
  6. Intensified: Made more acute, strong, or marked.
  7. Amplified: Made greater in size, volume, or extent.
  8. Boosted: Increased or raised, often through additional support or promotion.
  9. Enlarged: Made larger in size or extent.
  10. Escalated: Increased in intensity or extent, often rapidly.
  11. Extended: Made longer or stretched out.
  12. Strengthened: Made stronger or more robust.
  13. Upgraded: Improved to a higher standard or quality.
  14. Intensified: Made more intense, strong, or extreme.
  15. Upward trend: Showing an increase or improvement over time.
  16. Advanced: Moved forward or progressed to a more developed state.
  17. Grew: Experienced growth or increase.
  18. Developed: Progressed or evolved into a more advanced state.
  19. Surged: Experiencing a sudden and significant increase.
  20. Rose: Increased in level, position, or value.

Decreased synonym:

  1. Decreased: Made less in size, amount, or intensity.
  2. Diminished: Reduced in size, extent, or importance.
  3. Lowered: Brought down or made less in height or position.
  4. Minimized: Reduced to the smallest possible extent or degree.
  5. Cut back: Decreased or reduced in quantity.
  6. Curtailed: Limited or shortened in duration or extent.
  7. Mitigated: Alleviated or lessened the severity or intensity.
  8. Trimmed: Reduced or cut down to a more suitable size or level.
  9. Shrank: Became smaller in size or extent.
  10. Slashed: Cut drastically or substantially.
  11. Subdued: Reduced in strength, intensity, or significance.
  12. Tapered: Gradually reduced in size or intensity.
  13. Lowered: Brought down to a lower level or position.
  14. Dwindled: Gradually became smaller or lessened.
  15. Depleted: Reduced in number or quantity.
  16. Condensed: Made more compact or concentrated.
  17. Eased: Reduced in severity or intensity.
  18. Contracted: Reduced in size, extent, or scope.
  19. Scaled down: Reduced in size or amount.
  20. Moderated: Reduced or lessened the intensity or impact.

Sharply falls synonyms

  1. Plummets: Falls or drops rapidly and steeply.
  2. Drops steeply: Experiences a sudden and substantial decrease.
  3. Declines sharply: Undergoes a sudden and noticeable reduction.
  4. Tumbles: Falls rapidly and uncontrolled.
  5. Slides: Experiences a continuous and often downward movement.
  6. Descends rapidly: Moves downward swiftly.
  7. Sinks: Goes down, often implying a decrease in value or quantity.
  8. Dips significantly: Experiences a notable and sudden decline.
  9. Crashes: Experiences a sudden and severe decrease, often in financial markets.
  10. Nosedives: Plunges downward rapidly, like the steep angle of an airplane.
  11. Collapses: Falls apart or breaks down, suggesting a sudden loss.
  12. Plunges: Drops suddenly and forcefully.
  13. Falls precipitously: Descends abruptly and steeply.
  14. Swoops down: Descends rapidly in a sweeping motion.
  15. Takes a nosedive: Experiences a sudden and steep decline.
  16. Descends abruptly: Moves downward suddenly.
  17. Decreases sharply: Undergoes a rapid and significant reduction.
  18. Dwindles rapidly: Shrinks or diminishes quickly.
  19. Tanks: Experiences a sharp and severe decline.
  20. Shrinks abruptly: Contracts or reduces suddenly.

Interestingly synonyms

  1. Fascinatingly
  2. Intriguingly
  3. Compellingly
  4. Engagingly
  5. Captivatingly
  6. Entertainingly
  7. Curiously
  8. Stimulatingly
  9. Absorbingly
  10. Remarkably
  11. Unusually
  12. Piquantly
  13. Alluringly
  14. Grippingly
  15. Excitingly
  16. Enthrallingly
  17. Provocatively
  18. Rivetingly
  19. Complicatedly
  20. Uncommonly

Here are some example sentences using the provided words in the context of IELTS Academic Writing Task 1:

1. Adjectives:

   – The gradual increase in the number of tourists visiting the city was attributed to improved infrastructure.

   – There was a sharp decline in the export figures for the third quarter of the year.

2. Adverbs:

   – The population of the urban area has been growing gradually over the past decade.

   – The stock prices fell sharply during the economic downturn.

3. Nouns:

   – A variation in consumer preferences was observed after the introduction of the new product line.

   – The company experienced a significant growth in revenue following the implementation of cost-cutting measures.

4. Verbs:

   – The demand for renewable energy has been rising steadily in recent years.

   – The sales of electric vehicles have jumped since the introduction of government incentives.

You can adapt these sentences based on the specific data or scenario you are describing in your writing task.

Using fractions to describe changes in data:


1. Fractional Decrease:

The unemployment rate decreased by a quarter over the course of six months.

The company’s revenue witnessed a one-third decline from January to March.

2. Fractional Increase:

The student enrolment in the online course tripled within a three-month period.

The sales of electric vehicles quadrupled in just two years.

3. Fractional Change Over Time:

The temperature oscillated, doubling in the summer and halving in the winter.

The website traffic varied, doubling during promotional events and decreasing by two-thirds during maintenance periods.

4. Fractional Proportions:

The market share of the new product increased by three-fifths within the first quarter.

The production efficiency improved, resulting in a two-thirds reduction in waste.

5. Mixed Fractions:

The company’s profit margin doubled, increasing from 5% to 10%.

The crime rate halved, going from 6 incidents per 1,000 people to 3 incidents.

6. Combining Fractions with Time:

The average response time for customer queries halved within a month.

The energy consumption per household decreased by one-fifth in the past year.



How to make comparison of data effectively? Follow these structures:

Example: Fuel Price Comparisons

In examining the fluctuations in fuel prices, distinct trends emerge, shedding light on significant differences in cost.

1. More/few/less + noun + than:

   – Overall, the data indicates that more countries are experiencing an increase in fuel prices than those observing a decrease, emphasizing a widespread trend of rising costs.

2. of one syllable -er + than:

   – A noticeable trend is the presence of higher prices in urban areas compared to rural regions, highlighting the economic disparities in the cost of fuel.

3. More/less + adj. of more than one syllable + than:

   – Interestingly, diesel prices are more volatile than petrol prices, showcasing a greater degree of fluctuation in the cost of this particular fuel type.

4. of one syllable -est:

   – In this dataset, the United States stands out with the highest average fuel price per gallon, signaling a unique economic context within the nation.

5. The most/least + adj. of more than one syllable:

   – Contrary to global expectations, South American countries experience the least stable fuel prices, indicating a region characterized by unpredictability in the cost of fuel.

Tenses.

Above all, English tenses play a major role in the success of your IELTS results. Without proficiency in tenses, it is almost impossible to score a high band score in IELTS. You can study your tenses just by clicking on this link

Enhancing Lexical Resource in IELTS Writing Task 1: Approximations, Percentages, and Fractions

In various IELTS Writing Task 1 scenarios, mastery over expressing percentages in diverse ways can significantly elevate your score. Demonstrating linguistic variety, especially in the ‘lexical resource’ aspect, is crucial for a high score.

Approximations: Utilize approximations to present percentages in a distinctive manner. For example, represent 49% as “almost a half.”

Fractions: Employ fractions to provide a nuanced perspective:

  • 73% – nearly three quarters
  • 51% – just over a half
  • 49% – just under a half
  • 32% – nearly a third
  • 4% – a tiny fraction
  • 50% – exactly a half
  • 26% – roughly one quarter
  • 49% – around a half
  • 24% – almost a quarter
  • 77% – approximately three quarters

Proportions: Diversify your language by using varied terms to describe proportions:

  • 71% – a large proportion
  • 72% – a significant majority
  • 16% – a small minority
  • 4% – an insignificant minority

By incorporating these expressions, you not only enhance the richness of your language but also showcase a nuanced understanding of percentages and proportions, contributing to a more sophisticated and varied response in IELTS Writing Task 1.

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PIE CHART – ENERGY PRODUCTION

Sample answer by Lifestyle Training Centre

The presented pie charts compare the distribution of energy production percentages in France for the years 1995 and 2005 across five sources: Coal, Gas, Petrol, Nuclear, and Other.

Overall, Petrol, Gas, and Coal emerged as the dominant contributors to energy production, while Nuclear and Other sources played a minor role. Interestingly, this percentage distribution exhibited a remarkable degree of consistency in both 1995 and 2005.

The percentage of Coal production showed stability, maintaining close values of 29.80% in 1995 and 30.93% in 2005. Similarly, Gas production witnessed a marginal increase from 29.63% in 1995 to 30.31% in 2005. However, the percentage of the contribution of Petrol, despite being 29.27% in 1995, significantly decreased to 19.55% in 2005.

In contrast, Nuclear energy production nearly doubled, surging from 6.40% in 1995 to 10.10% in 2005. Additionally, the proportion from Other sources experienced a notable rise from 4.90% in 1995 to 9.10% in 2005.

We hope this information has been valuable to you. If so, please consider a monetary donation to Lifestyle Training Centre via UPI. Your support is greatly appreciated.

Would you like to undergo training for OET, PTE, IELTS, Duolingo, Phonetics, or Spoken English with us? Kindly contact us now!

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Bar chart. Gross Domestic Product

Model answer by Lifestyle Training Centre:

The provided bar chart delineates the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of the United Kingdom, attributed to the Information Technology (IT) and service industry. The data spans a nine-year period, covering the years 1992 to 2000.

Overall, it is evident that the percentage of GDP witnessed a substantial increase, nearly doubling over the nine-year period for both the Information Technology and Service industries, despite minor fluctuations.

Commencing at slightly above 6% in the year 1992, the IT industry witnessed an upward trajectory, peaking at over 8% in the year 1994. Despite a marginal decline in the year 1996 to just under 8%, the GDP soared, reaching a pinnacle of approximately 15% by the year 2000.

Concurrently, the Service Industry’s GDP, starting at 4 percentage in the year 1992, exhibited a consistent upward trend, culminating in a figure slightly surpassing 8 percentage by the conclusion of the period in the year 2000.

List of vocabulary used:


1. Provided – supplied, given
2. Delineates – describes, outlines
3. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) – national income, economic output
4. Attributed – related, linked
5. Information Technology (IT) – computing, tech industry
6. Service industry – service sector, tertiary sector
7. Data – information, statistics
8. Spans – covers, extends over
9. Period – timeframe, duration
10. Overall – generally, in summary



11. Evident – clear, obvious
12. Witnessed – observed, experienced
13. Substantial – significant, considerable
14. Increase – rise, growth
15. Nearly – almost, close to
16. Doubling – increasing twofold, multiplying
17. Fluctuations – variations, changes
18. Commencing – beginning, starting
19. Slightly – marginally, a little
20. Upward trajectory – increasing trend, rising path


21. Peaking – reaching the highest point, hitting a maximum
22. Marginal – slight, minor
23. Decline – decrease, drop
24. Soared – skyrocketed, surged
25. Pinnacle – peak, summit
26. Approximately – about, nearly
27. Concurrently – at the same time, simultaneously


28. Exhibited – displayed, showed
29. Consistent – steady, reliable
30. Culminating – resulting, ending
31. Figure – amount, number
32. Surpassing – exceeding, going beyond
33. Conclusion – end, final point


We hope this information has been valuable to you. If so, please consider a monetary donation to Lifestyle Training Centre via UPI. Your support is greatly appreciated.

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EASTERN ENERGY IELTS READING

SECTION 1

We are here to help and provide you with personal advice on any matters connected with your bill or any other queries regarding your gas and electricity supply.

Moving home: Please give as much notice as possible if you are moving home, but at least 48 hours is required for us to make the necessary arrangements for your gas and electricity supply. Please telephone our 24-hour line on 01316 753219 with details of your move. In most cases we are happy to accept your meter reading on the day you move. Tell the new occupant that Eastern Energy supply the household, to ensure the service is not interrupted. Remember we can now supply electricity and gas at your new address, anywhere in the UK. If you do not contact us, you may be held responsible for the payment for electricity used after you have moved.

Meter reading: Eastern Energy uses various types of meter ranging from the traditional dial meter to new technology digital display meters. Always read the meter from left to right, ignoring any red dials. If you require assistance, contact our 24-hour line on 0600 7310 310.

Energy Efficiency Line: If you would like advice on the efficient use of energy, please call our Energy Efficiency Line on 0995 7626 513. Please do not use this number for any other enquiries.

Special services: Passwords – you can choose a password so that, whenever we visit you at home, you will know it is us. For more information, ring our helpline on 0995 7290 290.

Help and advice: If you need help or advice with any issues, please contact us on 01316 440188.

Complaints: We hope you will never have a problem or cause to complain, but, if you do, please contact our complaints handling team at PO Box 220, Stanfield, ST55 6GF or telephone us on 01316 753270.

Supply failure: If you experience any problems with your electricity supply, please call free on 0600 7838 836,24 hours a day, seven days a week.



Question 1-7. Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on page 104? In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet, write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE: if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN: if there is no information on this

1. Customers should inform Eastern Energy of a change of address on arrival at their new home.

2. Customers are expected to read their own gas or electricity meters.

3. It is now cheaper to use gas rather than electricity as a form of heating.

4. Eastern Energy supplies energy to households throughout the country.

5. The Energy Efficiency Line also handles queries about energy supply.

6. All complaints about energy supply should be made by phone.

7. Customers are not charged for the call when they report a fault in supply.

Questions 8-14. The text on page below has seven sections, A-G. Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below. Write the correct number; i-x, in boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

I Re-heating
ii Foods with skins
iii Keeping your oven clean
iv Standing time
v Rapid cooking times
vi Using a thermometer
vii Small quantities of food
viii Deep fat frying
ix Foods low in moisture
x Liquids

8. Section A
9. Section B
10. Section C
11. Section D
12. Section E
13. Section F
14. Section G



USING YOUR NEW MICROWAVE OVEN

A As microwave cooking times are much shorter than other cooking times, it is essential that recommended cooking times are not exceeded without first checking the food.

B Take care when heating small amounts of food as these can easily burn, dry out or catch fire if cooked too long. Always set short cooking times and check the food frequently.

C Take care when heating ‘dry’ foods, e.g. bread items, chocolate and pastries. These can easily burn or catch fire if cooked too long.

D Some processed meats, such as sausages, have non-porous casings. These must be pierced by a fork before cooking, to prevent bursting. Whole fruit and vegetables should be similarly treated.

E When heating soup, sauces and beverages in your microwave oven, heating beyond boiling point can occur without evidence of bubbling. Care should be taken not to overheat.

F When warming up food for a second time, it is essential that it is served ‘piping hot’, i.e. steam is being emitted from all parts and any sauce is bubbling. For foods that cannot be stirred, e.g. pizza, the centre should be cut with a knife to test it is well heated through.

G It is important for the safe operation of the oven that it is wiped out regularly. Use warm, soapy water, squeeze the cloth out well and use it to remove any grease or food from the interior. The oven should be unplugged during this process.

SECTION 2. Question 15-27. Read the text below and answer Question 15-20.


CHOOSING PREMISES FOR A NEW BUSINESS

What you need: Three factors dominate the priorities of small businesses looking for premises: cost, cost and cost. Nobody ever has enough money, so there is an overwhelming temptation to go for the cheapest property. It is a mistake that can take decades to rectify – and even threaten the future of a promising business. Ironically some firms swing too far in the other direction, committing themselves to a heavy initial outlay because they believe in the importance of image – and that does not come cheap. Finding the right premises is the real secret. That can, and will, vary enormously according to the type of business. But there are some general rules that apply to any operation.

Location: High street premises are important for shops which rely on passing trade – but these are expensive. Rents fall quickly within a few metres of main roads. Offices, however, need not be located centrally, particularly if most business is done on the phone or via email.

Manufacturing and storage relies heavily on access. Think about how vans and lorries will deliver and collect goods from the premises. Nearby parking can be important for staff, and public transport can be even more so, as traffic restrictions tighten.

Size: This is a crucial decision. Health and Safety laws provide basic guidance on how much room is required per office desk or manufacturing operation. But remember to allow for growth.

Growth: Every small business aims to become a big business, but this prospect can be obstructed if the wrong decisions are made early on. It is important to consider flexibility from the start. Can a building be physically altered internally by knocking down walls or by extending outwards or adding extra floors? Is there spare land next door to expand later if necessary?

Landlords obviously have to agree to any changes so it is important that the contract includes details of what will be allowed and how much extra will be charged on top of the costs of rebuilding or alteration. Planning rules must also be considered. Local authorities are not always open to discussion about the future of premises. They may have rigid rules about increasing density of development. The building may be in a conservation area or near housing, in which case it will be much more difficult to consider changes.



15 Some people choose expensive premises because they want to create an impressive……………for their company.

16 Businesses which depend on………………..need to be on or near the principal shopping areas.

17 Businesses which produce goods must check there is……………………to the premises for delivery vehicles.

18 When choosing a building for your premises, find out whether………………could be removed to create more room.

19 Make sure that the………………….states what type of building alterations might be permitted.

20 If business premises are located close to………………, extensions may not be allowed.



Read the text below and answer Question 21-27

CALIFORNIA STATE COLLEGE WORKING CONDITIONS AND BENEFITS FOR EMPLOYEES

Payday: Employees are paid every other Friday. If Friday is a holiday, payday will be the following Monday. Generally employees pick up the pay checks in their department if not they may be picked up at the Business Office.

Overtime: All time worked over eight hours in one day and forty hours in a workweek, and also the first eight hours worked on the seventh day of work in a workweek is considered overtime for non-exempt employees. The supervisor must approve all overtime before overtime occurs. Hours in excess of eight hours on the seventh day and in excess of twelve hours in one day will be paid at double time. Exempt employees receive no additional compensation for overtime hours.

Parking: All employees who will be parking in a staff parking zone must obtain a parking permit. A monthly pre-tax payroll deduction can be made by visiting Human Resources. If you wish to pay cash, present your staff I.D. and license number to the Cashier’s Office.The Safety Department will ticket cars without a parking permit and a fine will be applied.

I.D. Card: All employees are required to carry an I.D. card. If an employee loses his/her card, there will be an automatic charge of $5.00 to issue a duplicate. If an employee gives up employment, his/her I.D. card must be returned prior to release of final paycheck.

Holidays: All regular and temporary full-time employees generally receive approximately 13 paid holidays during the course of each calendar year Regular part-time employees will receive holiday benefits worked out using a prorated system.The holiday schedule is initiated annually

Personal Holiday: Each employee is granted one extra day as a Personal Holiday at the time of hire, and at the beginning of each calendar year Personal Holiday hours must be taken at one time (eight hours full-time or prorated based on the employee’s time). Employees requesting Personal Holiday will be required to complete ‘Leave Request’ forms. No more than one Personal Holiday is authorized annually

Birthday Holiday: All regular and temporary full-time or part-time employees are entitled to take their birthday off with pay. An employee has a fifteen-day span before and following his/her birthday to take the paid day off. What is known as a grace period through January 15th is given to those employees whose birthdays fall between December 16th and end of the year.



Question 21-27. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

21. Where do most employees collect their wages?

22. Who has to authorise any overtime an employee wishes to do?

23. Who is not paid extra for working more than 40 hours a week?

24. Where should employees go if they wish to have the parking charge taken off their salary?

25. What method is used to calculate part-time employees’ holidays?

26. Which documents must employees fill in to select their Personal Holiday?

27. What is the name of the special entitlement provided to employees with birthdays in the second half of December?



SECTION 3. QUESTION 28-40. Read the text below and answer Question 28-40.

A VERY SPECIAL DOG

Florence is one of a new breed of dog who is making the work of the Australian Customs much easier

It is 8.15 a.m. A flight lands at Melbourne’s Tullamarine International Airport. Several hundred pieces of baggage are rushed from the plane onto a conveyor belt in the baggage reclaim annexe. Over the sound of roaring engines, rushing air vents and grinding generators, a dog barks. Florence, a sleek black labrador, wags her tail.

Among the cavalcade of luggage passing beneath Florence’s all-smelling nose, is a nondescript hardback suitcase. Inside the case, within styrofoam casing, packed in loose pepper and coffee, wrapped in freezer paper and heat-sealed in plastic, are 18 kilograms of hashish.

The cleverly concealed drugs don’t fool super-sniffer Florence, and her persistent scratching at the case alerts her handler. Florence is one of a truly new breed: the product of what is perhaps the only project in the world dedicated to breeding dogs solely to detect drugs. Ordinary dogs have a 0.1% chance of making it in drug detection. The new breeding programme, run by the Australian Customs, is so successful that more than 50% of its dogs make the grade.

And what began as a wholly practical exercise in keeping illegal drugs out of Australia may end up playing a role in an entirely different sphere – the comparatively esoteric world of neurobiology. It turns out that it’s not Florence’s nose that makes her a top drug dog, but her unswerving concentration, plus a few other essential traits. Florence could help neurobiologists to understand both what they call ‘attention processing’, the brain mechanisms that determine what a person pays attention to and for how long, and its flip side, problems such as Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). As many as 3 to 5% of children are thought to suffer from the condition in the US, where the incidence is highest, although diagnosis is often controversial.
The Australian Customs has used dogs to find drugs since 1969. Traditionally, the animals came from pounds
and private breeders. But, in 1993, fed up with the poor success rate of finding good dogs this way, John Vandeloo, senior instructor with the Detector Dog Unit, joined forces with Kath Champness, then a doctoral student at the University of Melbourne, and set up a breeding programme.

Champness began by defining six essential traits that make a detector dog. First, every good detector dog must love praise because this is the only tool trainers have at their disposal, but the dog must still be able to work for long periods without it. Then it needs a strong hunting instinct and the stamina to keep sniffing at the taxing rate of around 300 times per minute. The ideal detector is also fearless enough to deal with jam-packed airport crowds and the roaring engine rooms of cargo ships.

The remaining two traits are closely related and cognitive in nature. A good detector must be capable of focusing on the task of searching for drugs, despite the distractions in any airport or dockside. This is what neurobiologists call ‘selective attention’. And finally, with potentially tens of thousands of hiding places for drugs, the dog must persevere and maintain focus for hours at a time. Neurobiologists call this ‘sustained attention’.

Vandeloo and Champness assess the dogs’ abilities to concentrate by marking them on a scale of between one and five according to how well they remain focused on a toy tossed into a patch of grass. Ivan scores a feeble one. He follows the toy, gets half-way there, then becomes distracted by places where the other dogs have been or by flowers in the paddock. Rowena, on the other hand, has phenomenal concentration; some might even consider her obsessive. When Vandeloo tosses the toy, nothing can distract her from the searching, not other dogs, not food. And even if no one is around to encourage her, she keeps looking just the same. Rowena gets a five.

A person’s ability to pay attention, like a dog’s, depends on a number of overlapping cognitive behaviours, including memory and learning – the neurobiologist’s attention processing. Attention in humans can be tested by asking subjects to spot colours on a screen while ignoring shapes, or to spot sounds while ignoring visual cues, or to take a ‘vigilance test’. Sitting a vigilance test is like being a military radar operator. Blips appear on a cluttered monitor infrequently and at irregular intervals. Rapid detection of all blips earns a high score. Five minutes into the test, one in ten subjects will start to miss the majority of the blips, one in ten will still be able to spot nearly all of them and the rest will come somewhere in between.

Vigilance tasks provide signals that are infrequent and unpredictable – which is exactly what is expected of the dogs when they are asked to notice just a few odour molecules in the air, and then to home in on the source. During a routine mail screen that can take hours, the dogs stay so focused that not even a postcard lined with 0.5 grams of heroin and hidden in a bulging sack of letters escapes detection.

With the current interest in attentional processing, as well as human conditions that have an attention deficit component, such as ADHD, it is predicted that it is only a matter of time before the super-sniffer dogs attract the attention of neurobiologists trying to cure these conditions.



Questions 28-32. Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D. Write the correct letter in boxes 28-32 on your answer sheet.

28. The drugs in the suitcase
A were hidden inside the lining.
B had pepper and coffee around them.
C had previously been frozen.
D had a special smell to repel dogs.

29. Most dogs are not good at finding drugs because
A they don’t work well with a handler.
B they lack the right training.
C the drugs are usually very well hidden.
D they lack certain genetic qualities.

30 Florence is a good drug detector because she
A has a better sense of smell than other dogs.
B is not easily distracted.
C has been specially trained to work at airports.
D enjoys what she is doing.

31. Dogs like Florence may help scientists understand
A how human and dog brains differ.
B how people can use both sides of their brain.
C why some people have difficulty paying attention.
D the best way for people to maintain their focus.

32. In 1993, the Australian Customs
A decided to use its own dogs again.
B was successful in finding detector dogs.
C changed the way it obtained dogs.
D asked private breeders to provide more dogs.

Question 33-36. Choose FOUR letters, A-J Write the correct letters in boxes 33-36 on your answer sheet.

The writer mentions a number of important qualities that detector dogs must have. Which FOUR of the following qualities are mentioned by the writer of the text?

A a good relationship with people
B a willingness to work in smelly conditions
C quick reflexes
D an ability to work in noisy conditions
E an ability to maintain concentration
F a willingness to work without constant encouragement
G the skill to find things in long grass
H experience as hunters
I a desire for people’s approval
J the ability to search a large number of places rapidly



Questions 37-40. Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text? In boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet, write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information.
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

37. Methods of determining if a child has ADHD are now widely accepted.

38. After about five minutes of a vigilance test, some subjects will still notice some blips.

39. Vigilance tests help improve concentration.

40. If a few grams of a drug are well concealed, even the best dogs will miss them.


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WALK FOR CHARITY IELTS READING

SECTION 1

Dear Friend,
Please join us for our annual Walk for Charity. Starting in Weldown, pu and your friends can choose a
delightful 10, 20 or 30 kilometre route.
The money raised will provide support to help people all over the world. Start collecting your sponsors now  and then simply come along on the day. Please read the instructions below carefully, ewecialty if you require transpolt to and from Weldown.
 
See you on Sunday 14 May,
V Jesop
Walk Co-ordinator
P S. Well done to last year’s walkers for helping to raise a grand total of 21,000. The money has already been used to build a children’s playground.
START TIMES:
30 km: 8-10 am
20 8- 10.30 am
10 km: 8 – 11.30 am
The organisers reserve the right to refuse late-comers.
CLOTHING should be suitable for the weather. If rain is forecast, bring some protection and prepared for
all eventualities. It is better to wear shoes that have been worn in, rather than ones that are new.
ROUTE MAPS will be available from the registration point. The route win be sign-posted and marshalled.
Where the route runs along the road, walkers should keep to one side in single file, facing oncoming traffic at all times. If you need help along the route, please inform one of the marshals.
Free car parking available in car parks and on streets in Weldown.
Buses: For the 10 and 20 km routes, a bus will be waiting at Fenton to take walkers back to Weld-own; The bus will leave every half-hour starting at midday. The service is free and there is no need to book.


Questions 1-7. Look at the information on the given page about a walk for charity. Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet.
1. What is the starting point for the 30 km walk?

2. What is the latest start time for the 20 km walk?

3. Regarding footwear, what are you warned against wearing?

4. What are the officials who help participants on the route called?

5. Where does the 20 km walk finish?

6. What is the frequency of the Fenton to Weldown bus?

7. Which walk does not pass through Lower Brene?

Question 8-14. Read the information below and answer question 8-14



THE WEEK’S BEST

A Wild Rose (Tuesday 19.00). This TV drama is about a young private detective employed by a team of New York businessmen who send her to Brazil to look into a series of hotel robberies. When she gets there, she discovers that the hotels, which are owned by the businessmen, have been empty for the last two years and the local authorities have no record of any robberies.

B Animal Planet (Wednesday 23.00). This is a classic black-and-white film from the forties in which astronaut Charlie Huston crash-lands on a planet ruled entirely by animals. It is a first-class suspense adventure which also looks at the human condition, although this is not always a successful part of the film.

C Strange Encounter (Saturday 21.00). Suspense is skillfully built up in this clever, small-scale supernatural story. A young couple view a deserted old house that they are interested in buying. They meet a strange old lady who tells them of the mystical powers of the house and haw previous owners have been able to travel back through the centuries to meet their ancestors.

D The Longest Walk (Tuesday 21.30). Ffyona Campbell is nearly there. All she has to do now is walk the length of France and Britain and she has succeeded in walking around the world. Tonight she drinks coffee in a tent and tells her story to Janet Street-Porter before she sets off for the Pyrenees mountains.

E Rubicon 5 (Thursday 20.30). This is a TV film being used to launch a new science fiction series. It has impressive special effects and a strong, believable cast of characters who travel to the twenty-third century. The action takes place in underground cities where the environment is controlled by computers.

F New Science (Friday 19.30). This popular half-hour science magazine continues into its twenty-ninth year, proving itself to be a hardy survivor in the television world. Tonight it is presented by Carol Vorderman who introduces five reports, which include computer-driven cars and in-flight ten-pin bowling.

G There and Back Again (Sunday 22.00). Paul Theroux’s account of his recent journey from London to Japan and back makes ideal material for this evening’s travel slot. Based on his own novel, the progress of his journey on the railways of Europe and Asia (Victoria station, Paris, Istanbul…) acts as a fascinating travelogue as the inhabitants gradually shift from the West to the East.



Questions 8-14. Look at the seven television programmes A-G on the given page and answer Questions 8-14.
For which programme are the following statements true? Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet. NB You may use any letter more than once.

8. This programme is in the form of a personal interview.

9. This programme is a documentary about technological developments.

10. These TWO programmes are about time travel.

11. This programme is taken from a book.

12. This film is the introduction to a set of programmes.

13. These TWO programmes are about present-day travellers.

14. This programme is about investigating a possible crime.



SECTION 2. QUESTION 15-27.

BINGHAM REGIONAL COLLEGE.

International Students’ Orientation Programme. What is it? It is a course which will introduce you to the College and to Bingham. It takes place in the week before term starts, from 24th – 28th September inclusive, but you should plan to arrive in Bingham on the 22nd or 23rd September.

Why do we think it is important? We want you to have the best possible start to your studies and you need to find out about all the opportunities that college life offers. This programme aims to help you do just that. It will enable you to get to know the College, its facilities and services. You will also have the chance to meet staff and students.

How much will it cost? International students (non-European Union students) For those students who do not come from European Union (EU) countries, and who are not used to European culture and customs, the programme is very important and you are strongly advised to attend. Because of this, the cost of the programme, exclusive of accommodation, is built into your tuition fees.

EU students: EU students are welcome to take part in this programme for a fee of £195, exclusive of accommodation. Fees are not refundable.

Accommodation costs (international and EU students): If you have booked accommodation for the year ahead (41 weeks) through the College in one of the College residences (Cambourne House, Hanley House, the Student Village or a College shared house), you do not have to pay extra for accommodation during the Orientation programme. If you have not booked accommodation in the College residences, you can ask us to pre-book accommodation for you for one week only (Orientation Programme week) in a hotel with other international students. The cost of accommodation for one week is approximately £165. Alternatively, you can arrange your own accommodation for that week in a flat, with friends or a local family.

What is included during the programme? Meals: lunch and an evening meal are provided as part of the programme, beginning with supper on Sunday 23rd September and finishing with lunch at midday on Friday 28th September. Please note that breakfast is not available.
Information sessions: including such topics as accommodation, health, religious matters, welfare, immigration, study skills, careers and other ‘essential information’.
Social activities: including a welcome buffet and a half-day excursion round Bingham.
Transport: between your accommodation and the main College campus, where activities will take place.



Questions 15-20. Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text above. In boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet, write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

15. Participants are advised to arrive one or two days early.

16. The cost of the programme for European Union students, excluding accommodation, is £195.

17. The number of places available is strictly limited.

18. Some students are not charged extra for accommodation during the programme.

19. The College will arrange accommodation with local families.

20. You can obtain breakfast at the College for an extra charge.



STUDENT ACCOMMODATION

The College offers five basic accommodation options. Here is some information to help you make your choice

A. CAMBOURNE HOUSE – self-catering, student residence, located in the town centre about 2 miles from the main College campus. Up to 499 students live in 6, 7 and 8 bedroom flats, all with en-suite shower rooms. Rent is £64 per week, including bills (not telephone). Broadband Internet connections and telephones, with communal kitchen/dining and lounge areas. Parking space is available, with permits costing £60 per term.

B. STUDENT VILLAGE – features 3, 4, 5 and 7 bedroom, self-catering shared houses for 250 students close to the main College campus. Rent is £60 per week inclusive of bills (except telephone). Parking is available with permits costing £90 for the academic year.

C. HANLEY HOUSE – a second, modern, self-catering residence in the town centre for 152 students. Eighteen rooms per floor with communal kitchens, lounges, bathrooms and toilets. Rent is £53 per week including bills (not telephone). There is no space for parking nearby.

D. GLENCARRICK HOUSE – a privately-owned and managed student residence in the town centre above a multi-storey car park, close to a major nightclub and housing 120 students. Rooms are allocated by the College Accommodation Service. Rents range from £58.50 to £68.50 for a single en-suite room or larger en-suite room respectively. A small extra charge is made for electricity.

E. HOUSE SHARES – this recent initiative is a range of shared houses for 140 students, conforming to standards set by us to meet all legal safety requirements. A room in a shared house costs between £45 and £55 per week, exclusive of bills, and will be within a 4-mile radius of both campuses. As with halls of residence, the rent is payable termly.



Questions 21-27. Look at the accommodation options A-E on previous page for which options are the following statements true? Write the correct letter A-E in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet. NB You may use any letter more than once.

21. This is possibly inconvenient for car owners.

22. This is best if you like surfing the Web.

23. Of the College residences, this has the fewest students.

24. This is a new option offered by the College.

25. You have to organise parking a year at a time.

26. This accommodation does not belong to the College.

27. Here you definitely do not have your own bathroom.



SECTION 3.

GLOW-WORMS

A
The glow-worm belongs to a family of beetles known as the Lampyridae or fireflies. The fireflies are a huge group containing over 2000 species, with new ones being discovered all the time. The feature which makes fireflies and glow- worms so appealing is their ability to produce an often dazzling display of light. The light is used by the adult fireflies as a signal to attract a mate, and each species must develop its own ‘call-sign’ to avoid being confused with other species glowing nearby. So within any one area each species will differ from its neighbours in some way, for example in the colour or pattern of its light, how long the pulses of light last, the interval between pulses and whether it displays in flight or from the ground.

B The firefly’s almost magical light has attracted human attention for generations. It is described in an ancient Chinese encyclopaedia written over 2000 years ago by a pupil of Confucius. Fireflies often featured in Japanese and Arabian folk medicine. All over the world they have been the inspiration for countless poems, paintings and stories. In Britain, for example, there are plenty of anecdotes describing how glow-worms have been used to read by or used as emergency bicycle lamps when a cyclist’s batteries have failed without warning. Early travellers in the New World came back with similar stories, of how the native people of Central America would collect a type of click beetle and release them indoors to light up their huts. Girls threaded them around their feet to illuminate the forest paths at night.

Fireflies very similar to those we see today have been found fossilised in rocks which were formed about 30 million years ago, and their ancestors were probably glowing long before then. It is impossible to be sure exactly when and where the first firefly appeared. The highest concentrations of firefly species today are to be found in the tropics of South America, which may mean either that this is where they first evolved, or simply that they prefer the conditions there. Wherever they first arose, fireflies have since spread to almost every part of the globe. Today members of the firefly family can be found almost anywhere outside the Arctic and Antarctic circles.

C As with many insects, the glow-worm’s life is divided into four distinct stages: the egg, the larva (equivalent to the caterpillar of a butterfly), the pupa (or chrysalis) and the adult. The glow-worm begins its life in the autumn as a pale yellow egg. The freshly laid egg is extremely fragile but within a day its surface has hardened into a shell. The egg usually takes about 35 days to hatch, but the exact time varies according to the temperature, from about 27 days in hot weather to more than 45 days in cold weather. By the time it is due to hatch, the glow-worm’s light organ is fully developed, and its glow signals that the egg will soon hatch.

After it has left the egg, the larva slowly grows from a few millimetres into the size and shape of a matchstick. The larval stage is the only time the insect can feed. The larva devotes much of its life to feeding and building up its food reserves so that as an adult it will be free to concentrate all its efforts on the task of finding a mate and reproducing. Throughout its time as a larva, approximately 15 months, the glow-worm emits a bright light. The larva’s light is much fainter than the adult female’s but it can still be seen more than five metres away.

In the final stage of a glow-worm’s life, the larva encases itself in a pupa) skin while it changes from the simple larva to the more complex adult fly. When the adult fly emerges from the pupa the male seeks a female with whom it can mate. After mating, the female lays about 120 eggs. The adult flies have no mouth parts, cannot eat and therefore only live a few days. When people talk of seeing a glow-worm they normally mean the brightly glowing adult female.

D In some countries the numbers of glow-worms have been falling. Evidence suggests that there has been a steady decrease in the British glow-worm population since the 1950s and possibly before that. Possible causes for the decline include habitat destruction, pollution and changes in climate. Thousands of acres of grassland have been built upon and glow-worm sites have become increasingly isolated from each other. The widespread use of pesticides and fertilisers may also have endangered the glow-worm. Being at the top of a food chain it is likely to absorb any pollutants eaten by the snails on which it feeds. The effect of global warming on rainfall and other weather patterns may also be playing a part in the disappearance of glow-worms. A lot more research will be needed, however, before the causes of the glow- worm’s gradual decline are clear.

E Although glow-worms are found wherever conditions are damp, food is in good supply and there is an over-hanging wall, they are most spectacular in caves. For more than 100 years the glow-worm caves in New Zealand have attracted millions of people from all over the world. The caves were first explored in 1887 by a local Maori chief, Tane Tinorau, and an English surveyor, Fred Mace. They built a raft and, with candles as their only light, they floated into the cave where the stream goes underground. As their eyes adjusted to the darkness they saw myriad lights reflecting off the water.

Looking up they discovered that the ceiling was dotted with the lights of thousands of glow-worms. They returned many times to explore further, and on an independent trip Tane discovered the upper level of the cave and an easier access. The authorities were advised and government surveyors mapped the caves. By 1888 Tane Tinorau had opened the cave to tourists.



Questions 28-37. The passage has five sections labelled A-E. Which section contains the following information? Write the correct letter A-E in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet. NB You may use any letter more than once.

28. threats to the glow-worm

29. ways in which glow-worms have been used

30. variations in type of glow-worm

31. glow-worm distribution

32. glow-worms becoming an attraction

33. the life-cycle of a glow-worm

Questions 34-40. Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage. In boxes 34-40 on your answer sheet, write:
TRUE: if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE: if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN: if there is no information on this

34. Scientists have only recently been able to list the exact number of glow-worm species.

35. The first fireflies appeared 30 million years ago.

36. Glow-worm populations are decreasing faster in some countries than in others.

37. Heat affects the production of glow-worm larvae.

38. Adulthood is the longest stage of a glow-worm’s life.

39. The exact reason why glow-worm numbers are decreasing is unknown.

40. Glow-worms are usually found in wet areas.

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SCHOOLS IELTS READING

Section-1 Question 1-7.

Look at the three private school advertisements on the following pages. Answer the questions below by writing the letters of the appropriate schools (A-C) in the boxes on your answer sheet.
Example: It lays special stress on classical languages. C
1. It has an excellent linguistic lab.
2. It has a well-equipped maths lab.
3. It has arrangement for vocational training.
4. It charges reasonable fees
5. It is a training centre for some competitive examinations.
6. It does not have access to internet
7. Admission/ Registration here closes the earliest.

A

Metropolitan High School.
34,link Road, Liverpool Ph. 9772583 1
(A Residential co-educational School)
Admission open for all classes upto
10th Session 2009-10
Special Features
• Highly Qualified faculty.
• Extensive sports facilities.
• Excellent hostel facilities.
• Horse riding as an adventure sport.
• Computer centre having access to internet.
• Medicalcare under Qualified doctors.
• Well-equipped maths lab.
• Nourshing veg and non veg balanced diet.
Last Date :5 March 2009
Admission Enquires: 97855128
B
Apollo Senior Secondary School
89 Somerset Place, Birmingham
(A Non-residential coeducational school)
Registration open for classes X and XI Session 2009-10
SpecialFeatures
• Swimming pool
• Skating Rink
•Aviation Training
• Co-curricular activities like dancing, music, art & craft.
• Fully vegetarian balanced diet.
• Pipe Band for Girls & Boys
• Excellent Linguistic lab.
• Training centre for some competitive examinations.
Last Date :10 March 2009
C
Cosmopolitan High School

93 Twelfth Square, New Castle Ph. 97879454 (A Residential School for Girls)
Admission open for all classes upto 10th Session 2009-10
* Having linkage with three sister institutions.
* Special stress on classical languages
* Computer centre having access to internet.
* Reasonable fees to suit all economic classes.
* Excellent hostel facilites.
* Well-qualified staff.
* Highly qualified doctors to ensure healthcare.
* Fully vegetarian balanced diet.
* Arrangement for vocational training. Last Date: 12 March 2009

Question 8-13. Look at the information on the following page about the holding of MegaTrade fair. In boxes 8-13 on your answer sheet write
TRUE if the statement is true
FALSE if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage.

Example
The trade fair is being held at Minerva Banquet Hall TRUE

8. 10 percent discount on artificial jewellery will be allowed.

9. Rates are negotiable for shopkeepers only.

10. No special discount on electronic goods will be allowed.

11. There is arrangement for home delivery.

12. The fair will be open on Sundays.

13. Special discount on purchase of toys, books, and stationery items worth below £20 cannot be allowed.

Imperium Trading Co. Mega Trade Fair at Minerva a Banquet Hall 18, Circular Road, London

You’ll be glad to learn that Imperium Trading Co is holding Mega Trade Fair at Minerva Banquet Hall from 10 October to 30 October.
• A discount of 20 per cent will be allowed on most of the items except gold and silver jewellery, crockery and glassware.
• Whereas there’ll be 10 percent discount on cutlery, crockery and glassware, 5 per cent discount will be permissible on artificial jewellery.
• While special discount of 10 per cent on purchase of stationery items, toys and books worth more than £ 20 will be allowed, such concession will not be available on furniture, electronic goods, readymade garments, cosmetics, and handicrafts.
Visit for
• Breath-taking variety
• Excellence & elegance
• Unique quality
• Dirt cheap rates
• Enviable modernity Timing: 10 am to 10 pm
Open on Sundays
Note : * No bargaining will be allowed.
* Terms are cash. Ph. 97455708


SECTION-2 QUESTIONS 14-17

Look at the “The Charm of Glenwood Springs” on the following pages. Each paragraph A-E describes a different experience about the Glenwood Springs. From the list below (i-viii) choose the most suitable summaries for paragraphs B-E. Write the appropriate numbers (i-viii) in boxes 14-17 on your answer sheet.
NB : There are more summaries than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.

Summaries
(i) The Glenwood Springs as a versatile tourist centre.
(ii) The Importance of the Glenwood Springs for the USA.
(iii) The name and creation of the Glenwood Springs.
(iv) Sights around the Glenwood Springs.
(v) Walking is the best way to the Glenwood springs.
(vi) Different options for reaching the Glenwood Springs.
(vii) The mysteries of the Glenwood Springs.
(viii) Reaching the Glenwood Springs through Vail.
Example: Paragraph A (vi)
14. Paragraph B
15. Paragraph C
16. Paragraph D
17. Paragraph E



THE CHARM OF GLENWOOD SPRINGS

A. If you find world’s one of the most famous skiing sites, Aspen, to be highly expensive, you can opt for the Glenwood Springs in Colorodo US , just 65 km away. You can reach this place by road or rail as both options are available. Then there are about 14 direct air services but the three airports in Eagle County, Aspen and Grand Junction are about 50, 65 and 145 km respectively from here.

B. To be more adventurous or enterprising, you can go from Denver through Vail, another ski destination on the most eco- friendly highway called 1-70. This way, you’ll cover about 250 km. Before you reach Glenwood Springs, you’ll have an exciting experience when you wade through a serpentine mountainous tract which is said to be one of the tentacles of the awe-. inspiring, huge red rock, the Grand Canyon.

C. The name Glenwood Springs was given to the place by Sarah Cooper, wife of one of the town’s founding fathers, Issac Cooper. Before this the town was discovered as a gold mine. It is situated at the confluence of Roaring Park and Colorodo rivers and was known as ‘Defiance”. Earlier the tourists were attracted only towards the ‘Fairy Caves’ with grottos and layrinthine ducts. The place became famous for its curative hot water springs only when in the late 1800s Walter Devereaux and his brothers created here the world’s largest hot water pool which was dotted with nearly three score such springs.

D. Among the people who visit this place are skiiers, rafters, hikers, mountain bikers, hunters, fishermen, snowmobilers and of course ‘yampah’ tasters. ‘Yampah’ means ‘big medicine’. Such is attraction for the hot springs that the pool remains full to capacity even in rain and snow. The water is captured at 122°F and then toned down to 93 to 104 F. There are two pools with temperatures slightly different from each other. There are continental eateries all around besides the typically American ones. Then the accommodation here is fairly cheap being about one-fourth of that in Aspen.

E. Glenwood Springs is situated at the height of 5700 feet, but the average altitude of the mountains around reaches up to 13000 feet. If you stand on the rooftop of a high building, you can have a view of fascinating sights all around. On the western side you can have a captivating view of the Red Mountain. On the east you can see the famous Cavern Adventure Park which can he approached by a cable car. If you go there, you’ll be happy to find there the world’s first Alpine coaster sliding through the downhill park with a speed of about 80 km per hour. On the southern side you’ll find the famous ski destination called Sunlight Mountain Resort offering snowmobiling and ice-skating. If you take a view from the park of the Roaring Fork Valley, you’ll feel the marvel of a sight. Here you’ll find America’s world famous Amtrak railhead which can enable you to reach the historical downtown on to the Hot Springs pool. About a 20 km stretch of the Roaring Fork River has been declared the Gold Medal River where you’re allowed to fish to lay your hands on the best of trout and here at some place you can bring your pets also if you like.



Questions 18-27. Look at the “Human Empowerment Centre’s Memorandum” on the following page. In boxes 18-27 of your answer sheet write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information.
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information.
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this in the passage

18. Mere celebration of World Health Days in not enough.

19. The UN must step in to ensure health for people.

20. Even some less expensive food items can ensure health.

21. Exercise is not at all necessary to keep healthy.

22. It is the duty of the government to supply free iodised salt to the poor.

23. People should be discouraged to take skimmed milk as it has no food value.

24. Drinking a lot of water daily is good for health.

25. The rich people need no advice as all kinds of food items are available to them.

26. Expectant mothers should be given special attention in the matter of diet.

27. Consumption of foods containing less fat but lots of vitamins and minerals is good for health.



HUMAN EMPOWERMENT CENTRE MEMORANDUM.
The centre appeals to all concerned as under:
Although the World Health Days are now celebrated all over the world regularly, that’s not enough. The governments, the NGOs, the educational institutions and the media the world over, should take specific steps to awake’, the people in the matter of health.

People should be advised to take a balanced diet. The wealthy should be told about the harmful effects of over-eating and a rich diet. The poor should be told how they can keep healthy even by taking certain kinds of food which are not so expensive but contain lots of vitamins and minerals such as carrots, amla, skimmed milk, guava, leafy vegetables, etc. The importance of the use of iodised salt should be brought home to all. People should also be told about the benefits of drinking a lot of water daily.

People should be advised to take regular exercise. They should be told about the ill-effects of drinking, smoking, drug- taking, consumption of fast foods, soft drinks, excessive fat and sugar. Special arrangements for milk, fruit and other nutritious food items for poor children and expectant mothers should be made.

Pollution should be brought to the lowest level by taking all necessary steps. Drug-peddlers and adulterators should be given exemplary punishments. The use of toxic chemicals should be banned or regulated. Also arrangements for people’s participation in tension-releasing programmes such as yoga, meditation, etc. on a large-scale should be made.




SECTION 3.

Read the passage on the following pages and answer questions 28-40. Questions 28-32. Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage under section 3 above. In boxes 28-32 of your answer sheet write

YES if the statement agrees with the information.
NO if the statement contradicts the information.
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this in the passage.

Example: Cornelius Houtman was a Dutch navigator: YES

28. Bhimli is a short for Bheemunipatman

29. Vasco da Gama landed at Pondecherry in India.

30. Besides iron ore, copper mines were also discovered near Bhimli.

31. Bhimli is at a distance of 25 Km from Vizag.

32. Even today, Bhimli is a large flourishing town.

Questions 33-40. Complete the summaries below. Choose your answers from the passage and write them in boxes 33-40 on your answer sheet.

33. The route used by Vasco da Gama was used by Cornelius Houtman in………………………..

34. Besides the charm of its sandy beaches, Bhimli offers the spectacular sight of the flow of the……………………… river into the Bay of Bengal.

35. For its shallow waters Bhimli’s beaches are very………………………… for swimming and water sports.

36. Bhimli’s mythological significance arises out of the belief that was slain…………here by one of the Pandava princes.

37. It was in the………………………….. century that the Kalinga rulers got control of the place.

38. The Dutch got control of Bhimli in the………………………… century.

39. Finally, the British became the owners of Bhimli in exchange for their islands in………………..

40. You get the impression of………………………. as you sight the coastal coconut trees and mounds of red sand among other things.



A BEACH CALLING FOR ATTENTION

It is said that when Vasco da Gama landed at Calicut in India, he was stinking. The local Indian chief gave him some common salt besides some other elements and asked him to have a bath and wash his clothes to move the obnoxious smell emanating from his body. The route used by Vasco da Gama was used by an adventurous Dutch navigator, Cornelius Hout man, in 1596, but instead of reaching Calciut, he reached Bhimli, a beach about 25 km for Vishakhapatnam, generally called Vizag.

Bhimli, itself a short for Bheemunipatnam, and the stretch from Vizag have a fine motorable road running along the seacoast. The area has all along a hilly terrain on the one side and a vast expanse of golden sand on the other. Bhimli offers a picturesque sight with its sandy beaches located where the Gosthani river flows into the Bay of Bengal.

In India beaches such as those of Goa and Chennai, especially the former, are among the internationally famous tourist centres, but, Bhimli deserves to be tried, virtually having not been discovered as a tourist spot by some renowned persons. The place offers a stunning view for all the valid reasons which make a good beach worth-visiting. You can find there coconut trees lining the coast and mounds of red sand interspersed between small fishermen huts and boats as things out of an art movie. You have sea-food there in small stalls selling fresh prawn and pomfret dishes all around the beach. Walking there is a retreat and bathing there is fun and then, above all, Bhimli has one of the safest beaches for swimming and water sports as water there is shallow. Though it is a small place, you can get there coconut, fruits, plastic buckets, nylon ropes, vegetables and all other necessary things.

If you go after mythology and history, Bhimli has both. It is said that it was here that the Pandava prince Bhima slew Bakasura. Hence, the name of the place, Bhimli. The place passed hands from the early rulers to the Kalinga Empire in the 3rd century, then to Pallavas of Kanchi and then to Cholas of Tanjore, from whom it passed on to the Qutubshas of Golconda and later to the Dutch in the 17th century. The Dutch made it their settlement for trade and set up a port there. The Dutch had to bring several ships here and they could capture the place only after fighting pitched battles with locals. Then the port traded in tropical fruits, birds, animals, cloth diamonds, emerald and other items.’ Later, the discovery of iron ore around Bhimli made the Duch to realize the hold over Bhimli to be even more meaningful. Then, besides iron ore, cotton fabric woven by the artisans of Bhimli was traded at the port town.

Later by the middle of the 18th century, the British had wrested many of the Dutch settlements in India. Accordingly, the Dutch gave up their colonies in India, including Bhimli, to the British in exchange for, the British islands in Sumatra. Once a flourishing seaport, today Bhimli is reduced to just a small village of fishermen. Its beaches especially call for a serious attention from lovers of vast sandy expanses on sea–coasts and safe swimming and water sports.

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INTERESTING DAY COURSES IN YOUR AREA

SECTION 1

A Photographing Wildlife: This workshop includes an introduction in the classroom, two photography sessions with specially arranged access to the zoo enclosures so that you can take natural-looking close-ups of the most exotic species, and the opportunity to review and discuss your images as a group.

B Drawing For Fun: You will learn some basic techniques using soft pencils and charcoal. These and different types of paper are provided. Just bring yourself and a willingness to ‘have a gd. This is a start-up day so people who have already attended courses should not apply.

C Find Your Voice: You may feel you can’t sing or you may be an established singer who wants to improve or gain confidence. You will be shown how to sing in tune, how to breathe correctly and how to project your voice. You may attend this course more than once and each time have a wonderful experience. Everyone can sing and it’s great fun.

D Focus On Landscapes: This course is designed for students who are familiar with painting in watercolours, but are having difficulty with some techniques. We will discuss choice of materials, colour mixing and any other areas that may be raised.
The day will start with a demonstration, followed by an opportunity to sketch outdoors. After a light lunch cooked in the studio, there will be a further practical session.

E Taking Happy Pictures: The main objective is to introduce you to the skills required to take good photographs of people at special events, such as parties or weddings. We will discuss camera settings, dealing with varied light or bad weather, and how to get a good atmosphere. Lunch is provided at a nearby hotel, followed by a practical session inside the studio.

F The Music Takeaway: Get some friends, family or colleagues together for your own music course in a venue of your choice, which could be your front room, basement or workplace. We send two guitar tutors to lead a one-day session for you in the style of music you prefer, such as rock, country, funk or blues.



Questions 1-7. Look at the six advertisements, A—F below. For which course are the following statements true? Write the correct letter, A—F, in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet. NB You may use any letter more than once.

1. Participants can decide where the course is held.

2. Different ability levels are welcome.

3. All the necessary materials are supplied.

4. Participants will be able to go where the public are not normally allowed.

5. It is possible to repeat this course.

6. You can select what to study from a range of options.

7. The course will provide advice on how to overcome difficult conditions.

Read the text below and answer Questions 8-14.



LEARN TO SKYDIVE

Accelerated Freefall (AFF) is an intensive skydiving course and you can experience freefall on your very first jump. We offer the AFF Level 1 course as a unique introduction to the world of parachuting and skydiving. It’s great as a one-off freefall experience. However, the full eight-level Accelerated Freefall course is the best way to learn to skydive and attain your licence as a qualified parachutist, which allows you to jump at skydiving centres across the world.

The AFF Level 1 course begins with an intensive day of ground training. During the day, you will learn how your parachute equipment works and how to check and fit it, how to exit the aircraft, how to maintain the correct body position in the air, monitor your altitude and deploy your parachute and how to deal with emergencies. The day will finish with a written test. The training can be both mentally and physically tiring so you should stay overnight if you wish to do your first jump the next day. For safety reasons we require you to return and jump in less than a month after your training in order to complete the Level 1 course.

When you come to do your jump you will receive refresher training before you board the aircraft. You will exit the aircraft with two AFF Level 1 instructors. They will provide in-air coaching as they fall alongside you, holding onto your harness. You will experience about one minute of freefall and deploy your own parachute, then fly and navigate for around five minutes before landing on the dropzone. Following this, you will meet your instructors to debrief the jump and collect your certificate. Shortly after you arrive home, you will receive an email link to the instructors’ footage of your skydive to post online.

There are some restrictions for solo skydiving. The maximum acceptable weight is 95 kg fully clothed and a reasonable level of fitness is required. As far as age is concerned, the minimum is 16 and a parental signature of consent is required for students of 16-17 on three forms. Adults over 45 wishing to skydive must bring a completed Declaration of Fitness form signed and stamped by their doctor. Acceptance rests with the head instructor.


Questions 8-14. Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on page below? In boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

8. After doing the AFF Level 1 course, people can skydive in different countries.

9. The AFF Level 1 course takes more than one day to complete.

10. Students must do their first jump within a certain period.

11. Training continues after the student jumps out of the plane.

12. During a first jump, an instructor will open the student’s parachute.

13. Instructors usually film the first jumps that the students make.

14. Students will be divided into age groups when taking the course.



SECTION 2. QUESTIONS 15-27. Read the text below and answer Questions 15-20.

MISTAKES WHEN APPLYING FOR A JOB

There are many mistakes that people make when writing their résumé (CV) or completing a job application. Here are some of the most common and most serious.

The biggest problem is perhaps listing the duties for which you were responsible in a past position: all this tells your potential employers is what you were supposed to do. They do not necessarily know the specific skills you used in executing them, nor do they know what results you achieved – both of which are essential. In short, they won’t know if you were the best, the worst, or just average in your position.

The more concrete information you can include, the better. As far as possible, provide measurements of what you accomplished. If any innovations you introduced saved the organization money, how much did they save? If you found a way of increasing productivity, by what percentage did you increase it?

Writing what you are trying to achieve in life – your objective – is a waste of space. It tells the employer what you are interested in. Do you really think that employers care what you want? No, they are interested in what they want! Instead, use that space for a career summary. A good one is brief – three to four sentences long. A good one will make the person reviewing your application want to read further.

Many resumes list ‘hard’ job-specific skills, almost to the exclusion of transferable, or `soft’, skills. However, your ability to negotiate effectively, for example, can be just as important as your technical skills.

All information you give should be relevant, so carefully consider the job for which you are applying. If you are applying for a job that is somewhat different than your current job, it is up to you to draw a connection for the resume reviewer, so that they will understand how your skills will fit in their organization. The person who reviews your paperwork will not be a mind reader.

If you are modest about the skills you can offer, or the results you have achieved, a resume reader may take what you write literally, and be left with a low opinion of your ability: you need to say exactly how good you are. On the other hand, of course, never stretch the truth or lie.



Questions 15-20. Complete the sentences below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

15. It is a mistake to specify your………………………………. in past positions.

16. Do not include a description of your………………………………… in life.

17. Include soft skills such as an ability to………………………………..successfully.

18. Think hard about the position so you can ensure that the information in your application is…………………………..

19. Make the…………………………… between your abilities and the job you are applying for clear.

20. Do not be too……………………………… about what you can do.

Read the text below and answer Questions 21-27.

HEALTH AND SAFETY CERTIFICATE FOR THE CONSTRUCTION INDUSTRY (H&S Certificate)

Who should register for this course? The H&S Certificate is aimed at people who work as supervisors within the construction industry (whether or not that is part of their job title), who are required to ensure that activities under their control are undertaken safely.

Course duration: Option 1 — Conversion Course (for those who have a PHS Certificate — see below): 10 days, either one day a week or two weeks full-time
Option 2 — Full Course (for all others): 15 days, either one day a week or three weeks full-time For both options, the written exam and practical assessment take half a day.

About the course: The course provides thorough preparation for the H&S Certificate, which is an award in health and safety specifically designed for the construction industry. It combines theory with practice, ensuring that those who gain the certificate are capable of managing health and safety throughout each stage of the construction process, from planning and design to use and finally demolition.

You may already be one step towards gaining an H&S Certificate: The PHS (Principles of Health and Safety) Certificate can be taken separately or as part of the H&S Certificate. If you gained this qualification no more than five years before entering for the H&S Certificate, it will be recognised as contributing to your Certificate without the need to repeat that unit of the course.

Course content: The H&S Certificate is divided into three units. Unit 1 covers the principles of health and safety (and is identical to the PHS Certificate), Unit 2 covers the identification and control of hazards, and Unit 3 deals with practical applications of health and safety.

How is the course assessed? Candidates take written examinations for Units 1 and 2. Unit 3 is assessed by a practical examination testing the ability to identify health and safety issues in a construction workplace. Unit 3 needs to be taken within 14 days of a written examination. A full certificate is issued on successful completion of all three units.

Funding: Candidates from non-EU countries may be eligible for a small number of grants. These cover the cost of tuition, but not examination fees. For details, please contact the Registrar.

Enquiries: For further information please contact our administration office.



Questions 21-27. Answer the questions below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY AND/OR A NUMBER from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

21. Which position is the Certificate intended for?

22. How many days must a student without a PHS Certificate study?

23. What is the last stage of the construction process that is covered by the course?

24. For how long does a PHS Certificate count towards the H&S Certificate?

25. What do students learn to identify and deal with in Unit 2?

26. What type of examination is used for Unit 3?

27. What will a grant pay for?

SECTION 3. QUESTIONS 28-34.

The text on next page has seven sections, A—G. Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below. Write the correct number, i—x, in boxes 28-34 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings
i The instructions for old dances survive
ii Inspired by foreign examples
iii Found in a number of countries and districts
iv An enthusiastic response from certain people
v Spectators join in the dancing
vi How the street event came about
vii From the height of popularity to a fall from fashion
viii A surprise public entertainment
ix Young people invent their own clog dances
x Clog dancing isn’t so easy

28 Section A ……………….

29 Section B ………………

30 Section C ………………

31 Section D ………………

32 Section E ……………….

33 Section F ……………….

34 Section G ………………



CLOG DANCING’S BIG STREET REVIVAL

A The streets of Newcastle, in the north-east of England, have begun to echo with a sound that has not been heard for about a century. A sharp, rhythmic knocking can be heard among the Saturday crowds in one of the city’s busiest intersections. It sounds a little like dozens of horses galloping along the street, but there are none in sight. In fact, it’s the noise of a hundred people dancing in wooden shoes, or clogs.

The shoppers are about to be ambushed by the UK’s biggest clog dance event. The hundred volunteers have been coached to perform a mass routine. For ten minutes, the dancers bring the city centre to a standstill. There are people clogging on oil drums and between the tables of pavement cafés. A screaming, five-man team cuts through the onlookers and begins leaping over swords that look highly dangerous. Then, as swiftly as they appeared, the cloggers melt back into the crowd, leaving the slightly stunned spectators to go about their business.

B This strange manifestation is the brainchild of conductor Charles Hazlewood, whose conversion to clog dancing came through an encounter with a folk band, The Unthanks. `Rachel and Becky Unthank came to develop some ideas in my studio,’ Hazlewood says. ‘Suddenly, they got up and began to mark out the rhythm with their feet — it was an extraordinary blur of shuffles, clicks and clacks that was an entirely new music for me. I thought, “Whatever this is, I want more of it”.’

Hazlewood was inspired to travel to Newcastle to make a television programme, Come Clog Dancing, in which he and a hundred other people learn to clog in a fortnight. Yet when he first went out recruiting, local people seemed unaware of their heritage. ‘We went out on to the streets, looking for volunteers, lilt nobody seemed to know anything about clog dancing; or if they did, they thought it originated in the Netherlands.’

C The roots of clog dancing go back several hundred years, and lie in traditional dances of the Dutch, Native Americans and African-Americans, in which the dancer strikes the ground with their heel or toes, to produce a rhythm that’s audible to everyone around. In England, clogging is believed to have first developed in the mid-19th century in the cotton mills of Lancashire, in the north-west, where workers created a dance that imitated the sound of the machinery. The style quickly spread and developed a number of regional variations. In Northumberland, it became a recreation for miners, who danced solo or to the accompaniment of a fiddle.

‘The Northumberland style is very distinct from Lancashire clogging,’ says Laura Connolly, a virtuoso dancer who worked with Hazlewood on the programme. ‘Northumbrian dancing is quite neat and precise with almost no upper-body movement, whereas the Lancastrian style is more flamboyant.’

D Whatever the region, clogging remains very much a minority pursuit. Yet at the turn of the 20th century, clogging was a fully-fledged youth craze. Two famous comic film actors. Stan Laurel and Charlie Chaplin, both began their careers as cloggers. But the dance almost completely died out with the passing of the industrial age. ‘People danced in clogs because they were cheap, hardwearing and easily repaired,’ Connolly says. ‘Yet eventually clogs became associated with poverty and people were almost ashamed to wear them.’

E Fortunately, the key steps of the dances were preserved and handed down in a series of little blue books, often named after their inventors. ‘It means that we still know what Mrs Willis’s Rag or Ivy Sands’s Hornpipe were like,’ Connolly says. ‘It’s my dream that one day there’ll be a little blue book called Laura Connolly’s Jig.’

F Her biggest challenge to date was to teach Hazlewood and 100 other beginners a routine sufficiently accomplished to perform on television, from scratch, in less than two weeks. ‘I started people off with something simple,’ she says. ‘It’s a basic shuffle that most people can pick up.’ Once Hazlewood had absorbed the basics, Connolly encouraged him to develop a short solo featuring more complex steps — though he nearly came to grief attempting a tricky manoeuvre known as Charlie Chaplin Clicks, so named as it was the signature move of Chaplin’s film character the Little Tramp.

`To be honest, I never quite got those right,’ Hazlewood says with a laugh. ‘We came up with a slightly easier version, which Laura thought we should call Charlie Hazlewood Clicks. The thing about clogs is that they’re all surface: there’s no grip and they’re slightly curved so you stand in a slightly peculiar way. The potential to fall over is enormous.’

On the day, Hazlewood managed to pull off a decent solo, clicks and all. ‘I wasn’t convinced, until the moment I did it, that I was going to get it right,’ he admits. ‘But in the end, clog dancing is not so very different from conducting. Both require you to communicate a beat — only I had to learn how to express it with my feet, rather than my hands. But it’s a good feeling.’

G ‘People forget that clogging was originally a street dance,’ Connolly says. ‘It was competitive, it was popular, and now young people are beginning to rediscover it for themselves. As soon as we finished in Newcastle, I had kids coming up to me saying, “Clog dancing’s cool — I want to do that!’



Questions 35-37. Complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 35-37 on your answer sheet.

A clog dancing event in Newcastle

First the city’s shoppers hear a sound that seems to be created by a large number of 35……………………… ,and then over a hundred people wearing clogs appear and dance. Most dance on the pavement, some on oil drums. One group uses 36………………………… as part of its dance. The event was organised by Charles Hazlewood, a 37………………………….. He was introduced to clog dancing by a folk band working-with him in his studio.

Questions 38-40. Complete the notes below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet.

The origins of clog dancing
• Originated in the Netherlands and North America
• In England, probably invented by factory workers copying the noise made by the 38……………………. in mills
• In Northumberland, was danced by 39…………………………
• Very popular in the early 20th century
• Lost popularity when clogs were thought to indicate 40…………………….

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Do you need printed IELTS/ OET practice material? Place your order today. Available now for just Rs: 1,100 (including shipping all across India) Contact us at our WhatsApp number: +91 9886926773 to place your order. (Free for LTC students)

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Would you like to undergo training for OET, PTE, IELTS, Duolingo, Phonetics, or Spoken English with us? Kindly contact us now!

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SOME PLACES TO VISIT IELTS READING


SECTION 1. QUESTIONS 1-14.

Read the text below and answer Questions 1-8.

A Beautiful Kingsley House was built in the 18th century, and all the rooms are decorated and furnished in the style of the time. They include the dining room, study and dressing room, which contains a display of 18th-century ladies’ clothing. Our volunteer guides in each room bring the house to life with stories of the past.

B The Africa Museum was founded 50 years ago, and to commemorate the event, we have chosen 50 treasures from the permanent collection and put them together to tell the fascinating story of that continent. This exhibition continues until the end of the year. The Folk Art Gallery opens to the public next month, exhibiting traditional paintings and other objects from all over Africa.

C From the outside, 17 Mansfield Street may not look particularly exciting, but come inside, and you’ll find yourself in a historic building that started life as a theatre, before becoming a bank and then a restaurant, which is still in operation. On Sundays and Mondays, when the restaurant is closed, a guide is available to show you round the building and its fascinating architectural features.

D The Industrial Heritage Centre tells the fascinating story of a local family firm. Mr John Carroll started his engineering business in this building exactly 150 years ago. The firm closed in 1969, but the factory has been re-created, with machines like those that Mr Carroll was familiar with. See what working life could be like in the 19th century, a life far removed from the elegance of the wealthy.

E The Fashion Museum has only just opened. It is home to an outstanding collection of more than 30,000 objects worn by men, women and children, dating from the 17th century to the present day. You’ll see how people used to dress! As well as the permanent exhibits, you can currently see Dressing the Stars, which displays original costumes worn by the stars of many popular films.

F Having spent the best part of two years being refurbished, the Mason Museum has recently opened its doors again. It provides a magnificent setting for its art collection and for the beautiful 18th-century furniture for which the Mason is famous. Open Mondays to Fridays 10-4, and weekends 10-6.


Questions 1-8. The text above has six descriptions of places to visit in the same city, A—F. Which description mentions the following information? Write the correct letter, A—F, in boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet. NB You may use any letter more than once.

1. Clothes that well-known people have worn

2. a display that cannot be seen yet

3. people who talk in an entertaining way

4. The museum having just reopened

5. a building that has changed its function several times.

6. Furniture of the same kind that was used when the building was new

7. being open for tours on certain days of the week

8. special event to mark an anniversary

Read the text below and answer Questions 9-14.




LearnWithUs courses

LearnWithUs courses are a great way to learn, because they’re so flexible. All our courses are taken online using a computer, so you can work through the course at your own speed, and go back to any session whenever you want to. For some courses there are workbooks, in addition to the computer course, to provide extra written practice.

We offer hundreds of courses in a whole range of subjects from reading, writing and maths to business and management. Many of these are specially designed for people whose first language isn’t English.

Step one: have a chat with a friendly member of staff in one of our 1,500 LearnWithUs centres around the country. They can advise you on the most suitable course. They’ll also work out whether you qualify for funding, so that you won’t have to pay the full fee for the course.

You might want to try a taster lesson first. This is a single computer session in any subject of your choice, and it will show you what learning with LearnWithUs is like.

When you’ve made your final decision, step two is to register on your course. Once you’ve done this, a staff member will show you how to get started, whether you’re using a computer at home, at work or at a LearnWithUs centre.

That’s all you need to do! When you start your course, you can contact your LearnWithUs centre by phone (we’re open during normal office hours) or email if you need help.

Questions 9-14. Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text above? In boxes 9-14 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

9. You can work through parts of a course more than once.

10. The number of courses offered by LearnWithUs has increased enormously.

11. Many staff members have worked through a LearnWithUs course themselves.

12. You may have to pay to take a LearnWithUs course.

13. Everybody takes the same taster lesson.

14. LearnWithUs centres are open seven days a week.



SECTION 2. QUESTIONS 15-27.

Read the text below and answer Questions 15-20.

The benefits of having a business mentor Introduction

If you’re starting your own business, you probably need a mentor. This is a business person who volunteers to give their time to help somebody else with their work – particularly somebody who is new to business. They have a wealth of experience they are willing to share, perhaps from setting up and running their own company. The mentor’s role is to support, develop, stimulate and challenge. However, business mentors won’t solve your problems for you or tell you what to do: they will talk things over with you, rather than acting as consultants. Many people setting up their first business have found that a mentor can have a very positive effect on its success.

Why business mentoring is important

If you have a gap in your knowledge or experience, then mentoring could work very well for you. For example, you may have a great concept for a business but need a bit of assistance to turn it into a successful venture.
A mentor can provide you with a number of benefits, such as:
• guidance on developing and improving your business
• help with decisions – particularly difficult ones
• ideas for new products or services, or for working practices that will improve your efficiency
• tips for your business that are gained from practical experience
• access to a network of contacts with other business people A business mentor can also help you to:
• develop key business skills
• improve your problem-solving abilities
• build confidence
• work on your personal development

Face-to-face business mentoring: If you decide that face-to-face business mentoring is right for you, mentor and mentee should decide in advance on the nature of the relationship.
You will need to agree on the degree of involvement that suits you both. Some mentors and mentees work extremely closely, keeping in touch with each other most weeks or even most days. In the majority of cases, however, a mentor will provide help every few weeks or months. In either case, they might meet, speak on the phone, or exchange emails.

You should also agree on a level of structure to suit you both. Mentoring can be a very formal process with regular meetings which follow a specific agenda and work towards a specific set of goals. It can also be quite a casual arrangement, where the mentee calls on the mentor as and when problems or questions arise.



Questions 15-20. Complete the notes below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

How can a mentor help somebody setting up a business?
A mentor (15)…………………….. to help a new business person. Mentors have a different role from (16)……………………… A mentor can:
• help you turn your idea into a successful business
• assist when you need to make (17)…………………… suggest how your business can increase its (18)………………
• introduce you to a business network
• help you to develop your skills, abilities and provide you with more (19)……………………………… To be agreed:
• how much (20)…………………………….. the mentor should have
• how much structure the mentoring process should have
Read the text below and answer Questions 21-27.



A PLANNING PROCESS FOR MIDDLE-SIZED PROJECTS


Any business project — such as reducing energy costs, or improving efficiency —needs to be planned, and time spent planning will save far more time later on. The typical stages in this planning process are explained below.
• Your first task is to spot what needs to be done. Examine your firm’s current position, perhaps making a formal analysis of its strengths and weaknesses. Then think about how you might improve that position: what opportunities are there for achieving this?
• The next step is to decide precisely what the aim of your plan is. This is best expressed in a simple single sentence, to ensure that it is clear and sharp in your mind. Doing this helps you to avoid wasting effort on irrelevant side issues.
• Next you should work out how to do it. It is tempting just to grasp the first idea that comes to mind, but it is better to consider a wide range of options: this way, you may come up with less obvious but better solutions.
• Once you have explored the options available to you, the selection of which option to use is the next step. If you have the time and resources, you might decide to evaluate all options, carrying out some planning, such as costing, for each. Normally you will not have this luxury.
• You already have a broad idea of what your project will consist of. Now is the time to work out the full details, identifying the most efficient and effective method of carrying it out, including answering the questions of ‘who’, ‘what’ and ‘when’.
• The next stage is to review your plan and decide whether it will work satisfactorily. This evaluation enables you to change to another option that might be more successful, or to accept that no plan is needed.
• Once you have finished your plan and decided that it will work satisfactorily, it is time for implementation. Your plan will cover how this is to be done.
• Once you have achieved a plan, you can close the project. At this point it is often worth assessing the project to see whether there are any lessons that you can learn.


Questions 21-27. Complete the flow-chart below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.


SECTION 3. QUESTIONS 28-40.

Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40.

THE PENNY BLACK

It might not have looked very impressive, but the Penny Black, now 170 years old, was the first stamp to be created and it launched the modern postal system in Britain.

Before 1840 and the arrival of the Penny Black, you had to be rich and patient to use the Royal Mail. Delivery was charged according to the miles travelled and the number of sheets of paper used; a 2-page letter sent from Edinburgh to London, for example, would have cost 2 shillings, or more than £7 in today’s money. And when the top-hatted letter carrier came to deliver it, it was the recipient who had to pay for the postage. Letter writers employed various ruses to reduce the cost, doing everything possible to cram more words onto a page. Nobody bothered with heavy envelopes; instead, letters would be folded and sealed with wax. You then had to find a post office — there were no pillar boxes — and hope your addressee didn’t live in one of the several rural areas which were not served by the system. If you were lucky, your letter would arrive (it could take days) without being read or censored.

The state of mail had been causing concern throughout the 1830s, but it was Rowland Hill, an , inventor, teacher and social reformer from Kidderminster, who proposed a workable plan for change. Worried that a dysfunctional, costly service would stifle communication just as Britain was in the swing of its second industrial revolution, he believed reform would ease the distribution of ideas and stimulate trade and business, delivering the same promise as the new railways.

Hill’s proposal for the penny post, which meant any letter weighing less than half an ounce (14 grams) could be sent anywhere in Britain for about 30p in today’s money, was so radical that the Postmaster General, Lord Lichfield, said, ‘Of all the wild and visionary schemes which I ever heard of, it is the most extravagant.’ Lord Lichfield spoke for an establishment not convinced of the need for poor people to post anything. But merchants and reformers backed Hill. Soon the government told him to make his scheme work. And that meant inventing a new type of currency.

Hill quickly settled on ‘a bit of paper covered at the back with a glutinous wash which the user might, by applying a little moisture, attach to the back of a letter’. Stamps would be printed in sheets of 240 that could be cut using scissors or a knife. Perforations would not arrive until 1854. The idea stuck, and in August 1839 the Treasury launched a design competition open to ‘all artists, men of science and the public in general’. The new stamp would need to be resistant to forgery, and so it was a submission by one Mr Cheverton that Hill used as the basis for one of the most striking designs in history. Cheverton, who worked as a sculptor and an engineer, determined that a portrait of Queen Victoria, engraved for a commemorative coin when she was a 15-year-old princess, was detailed enough to make copying difficult, and recognisable enough to make fakes easy to spot. The words ‘Postage’ and ‘One Penny’ were added alongside flourishes and ornamental stars. Nobody thought to add the word ‘Britain’, as it was assumed that the stamps would solely be put to domestic use.

With the introduction of the new postal system, the Penny Black was an instant hit, and printers struggled to meet demand. By the end of 1840, more than 160 million letters had been sent — more than double the previous year. It created more work for the post office, whose reform continued with the introduction of red letter boxes, new branches and more frequent deliveries, even to the remotest address, but its lasting impact on society was more remarkable.

Hill and his supporters rightly predicted that cheaper post would improve the ‘diffusion of knowledge’. Suddenly, someone in Scotland could be reached by someone in London within a day or two. And as literacy improved, sections of society that had been disenfranchised found a voice.

Tristram Hunt, an historian, values the ‘flourishing of correspondence’ that followed the arrival of stamps. ‘While I was writing my biography of Friedrich Engels I could read the letters he and Marx sent between Manchester and London,’ he says. ‘They wrote to each other three times a day, pinging ideas back and forth so that you can almost follow a real-time correspondence.’

The penny post also changed the nature of the letter. Weight-saving tricks such as cross-writing began to die out, while the arrival of envelopes built confidence among correspondents that mail would not be stolen or read. And so people wrote more private things — politically or commercially sensitive information or love letters. ‘In the early days of the penny post, there was still concern about theft,’ Hunt says. ‘Engels would still send Marx money by ripping up five-pound notes and sending the pieces in different letters.’ But the probity of the postal system became a great thing and it came to be expected that your mail would not be tampered with.

For all its brilliance, the Penny Black was technically a failure. At first, post offices used red ink to cancel stamps so that they could not be used again. But the ink could be removed. When in 1842, it was determined that black ink would be more robust, the colour of the Penny Black became a sort of browny red, but Hill’s brainchild had made its mark.
Questions 28-30. Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D. Write the correct letter in boxes 28-30 on your answer sheet.



28 One of the characteristics of the postal service before the 1840s was that
A postmen were employed by various organisations.
B letters were restricted to a certain length.
C distance affected the price of postage.
D the price of delivery kept going up.

29 Letter writers in the 1830s
A were not responsible for the cost of delivery.
B tried to fit more than one letter into an envelope.
C could only send letters to people living in cities.
D knew all letters were automatically read by postal staff.

30 What does the text say about Hill in the 1830s?
A He was the first person to express concern about the postal system.
B He considered it would be more efficient for mail to be delivered by rail.
C He felt that postal service reform was necessary for commercial development.
D His plan received support from all the important figures of the day.

Questions 31-34. Look at the following statements (Questions 31-34) and the list of people below. Match each statement with the correct person, A, B, C or D. Write the correct letter, A, B, C or D, in boxes 31-34 on your answer sheet. NB You may use any letter more than once.

31. His inspiration came from a particular picture.

32. He claimed that the postal system would lead to the spread of information.

33. He organised the creation of the first stamp.

34 He expressed doubts about the plans to change the postal service.

List of People:

A Rowland Hill
B Lord Lichfield
C Cheverton
D Tristram Hunt

Questions 35-40. Complete the notes below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 35-40 on your answer sheet.

The Penny Black: Design came about as a result of a competition organised by the 35…………………….
• Based on an engraving of Queen Victoria featured on a 36………………………
• Apart from the Queen’s face, the stamp had just three words and pictures of 37…………………….. as decoration
• No mention of 38……………………….. as plan was for stamps to be for domestic use only
• The 39……………………. which was applied to indicate that the stamp had been used, proved to be ineffective
• In 1842, the 40………………………… of the stamp was changed

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How did it go? Please share your feedback in the comment section below:
Do you need a copy of this test? View/Download PDF

Show answers
SOME PLACES TO VISIT

1. E

2. B

3. А

4. F

5. C

6. А

7. C

8. B

9. TRUE

10. NOT GIVEN

11. NOT GIVEN

12. TRUE

13. FALSE

14. FALSE

15. volunteers

16. consultants

17. decisions

18. efficiency

19. confidence

20. involvement

21. aim

22. range

23. selection

24. details

25. evaluation

26. implementation

27. lessons

28. C

29. А

30. C

31. C

32. А

33. А

34. В

35. Treasury coin

36. (commemorative)

37. (ornamental) stars

38. (word) Britain

39. (red) ink

40. colour/color

Intercity sleeper IELTS reading

SECTION 1
Read the text below and answer Questions 1-6



Questions 1-6. Look at the seven job advertisements, A-G, and read the descriptions of people below. Which is the most suitable job for each person?
1. a person with two small children who wants a few hours a week of unskilled work in the early mornings
2. a person with no experience or qualifications who is looking for a short term full¬time job, Monday to Friday
3. a lively student with no experience, who cannot work on weekdays
4. a person with more than 20 years’ experience in catering who would like to run a business
5. a catering college graduate who is now looking for his first full-time job
6. a person with many years’ experience working in hotels who is now looking for well- paid part-time employment in a hotel

INTERCITY SLEEPER BETWEEN LONDON AND SCOTLAND



Read the text below and answer Questions 7-14
Most tickets may be used for travel by Sleeper, subject to availability, and a reservation in a two- berth cabin can be made for £25, except in the case of Solo and Special tickets, which include Sleeper reservations in the fare. The price includes early morning tea or coffee and biscuits. A continental or hot breakfast can be ordered if you wish. Choose from a range of tickets to suit your journey.

A – SuperApex: Only available for travel after 9am. Book at least 2 weeks ahead and travel between Edinburgh or Glasgow and London for the unbeatable price of £59 return. This ticket is non-refundable unless the service is cancelled.

B – Apex: Areal bargain fare. Only £69 return between Edinburgh or Glasgow and London. Great value Sleeper travel available by booking at least a week before outward travel. Ticket refundable on payment of a 25% administrative charge.

C – SuperSaver: Available right up to the day of travel and valid any day except these peak days: all Fridays, also 18-30 December, 31 March and 28 May. Departures between midnight and 2am count as previous day’s departures. London to Glasgow or Edinburgh £82.

D – Saver: This flexible ticket is valid every day and can be bought on the day of travel. Your ticket allows standard class travel on any train between 10am and midnight. No seat reservations available. London to Glasgow or Edinburgh £95.

E – Solo: Treat yourself and enjoy exclusive use of a Standard cabin. Solo is an inclusive return travel ticket with Sleeper reservations for one or both directions. Outward and return reservations should be made at the time of booking. The journey must include a Saturday night away. £140-£160 London to Edinburgh/Glasgow return.

F – Special: Special is an inclusive return travel package for two people including sleeper reservations for one or both directions. It can mean savings for both of you. Outward and return reservations should be made at the time of booking. From £120.

G – Standard: Not the cheapest option but available up to the time of travel and valid for all trains and at all times. You are advised to turn up early for travel on a Friday.



Questions 7-14. Look at the seven types of train ticket, A-G, on page 107. For which type of train ticket are the following statements true? Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 7-14 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.

7. There are advantages if you book a journey with a friend.

8. You cannot use this on a Friday.

9. This can be used without restriction.

10. This can only be booked up to 7 days before departure.

11. It’s the cheapest ticket available but there is a restriction on departure time.

12. If you decide not to travel after you have bought the ticket, you cannot get your money back.

13. This is not available if you’re travelling out on a Monday and back the next day.

14. You cannot use this ticket for departures between midnight and 10am.


FORMAL DRESS CODE FOR COMPANY EMPLOYEES

Read the text below and answer Questions 15-21
At Transit European, the company’s objective in establishing a formal dress code is to enable our employees to project the professional image that is in keeping with the needs of our clients and customers who seek our guidance, input, and professional services. Because our industry requires the appearance of trusted business professionals and we serve clients at our site on a daily basis, a more formal dress code is necessary for our employees.

Formal Dress Code Guidelines: In a formal business environment, the standard of dressing for men and women is a suit. Alternatively a jacket may be worn with appropriate accessories. Torn, dirty, or frayed clothing is unacceptable. Clothing should be pressed and never wrinkled. No dress code can cover all contingencies so employees must exert a certain amount of judgement in their choice of clothing to wear to work. If you experience uncertainty, please ask your supervisor for advice.

Shoes and Footwear: Conservative walking shoes, dress shoes, loafers, boots, flats, dress heels, and backless shoes are acceptable for work. Not wearing stockings or socks is inappropriate. Tennis shoes and any shoe with an open toe are not acceptable in the office.

Accessories and Jewellery: The wearing of ties, scarves, belts, and jewellery is encouraged, provided they are tasteful. Items which are flashy should be avoided.

Makeup, Perfume, and Cologne: A professional appearance is encouraged and excessive makeup is unprofessional. Remember that some employees may have allergic reactions to the chemicals in perfumes and makeup, so wear these substances in moderation.

Hats and Head Covering: Hats are not appropriate in the office. Head covers that are required for reasons of faith or to honour cultural tradition are permitted.

Dress Down Days: Certain days can be declared dress down days, generally Fridays. On these days, business casual clothing is allowed. Clothing that has our company logo is strongly encouraged. Sports team, university, and fashion brand names on clothing are generally acceptable. However, you may wish to keep a jacket in your office in case a client unexpectedly appears.

Violation of Dress Code: If clothing fails to meet these standards, as determined by the employee’s supervisor, the employee will be asked not to wear the inappropriate item to work again. If the problem persists, the employee will receive a verbal warning and may be sent home to change clothes.



Question 15-21 Complete the notes below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 15-21 on your answer sheet.

NOTES ON COMPANY DRESS CODE

Aim of formal dress code: to present a (15)……………….to clients Acceptable types of formal clothing: jacket or suit
State of clothes: they must be (16)……………………….and in good condition Footwear: tennis shoes and open toe shoes are not allowed Accessories: ties, scarves, belts and jewellery may be worn
-these must be (17)………………and not brightly coloured Make up: avoid wearing too much make up and perfume.
-these sometimes cause (18)……………………… Hats: hats should not be worn
-head covers in line with religious reasons or (19)…………………..are allowed Dressing down: casual clothing is allowed on some Fridays
-clothing with the (20)………………………..on it is recommended
Breaking the dress code: if advice is repeatedly ignored, a (21)………………………..is given



SECTION 2.

Questions 22-27 Complete the sentences below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the text for each answer.

JLP RETAIL: STAFF BENEFITS.

Whatever your role, your pay range will be extremely competitive and reviewed in the light of your progress. In addition to your salary, you will enjoy an array of excellent benefits from the moment you join the company.

Paid holiday: The holiday entitlement is four weeks per year, rising to five weeks after three years (or in the case of IT graduate trainees, after promotion to programmer or trainee analyst). There are further long-service increases for most staff after ten or fifteen years. Managers, including graduate trainees, receive five weeks’ holiday from the outset.

Pension scheme: We offer a non-contributory final salary pension scheme, payable from the age of 60, to most staff who have completed the qualifying period of five years.
Life assurance: Our life assurance scheme pays a sum equivalent to three times your annual salary to your nominated beneficiary.

Discounts: After three months’ service, all staff are entitled to a 12% discount on most purchases from the company’s stores. This rises to 25% after one year’s service.

Subsidised dining room: In most sites, we provide a dining room where you can enjoy excellent food at very reasonable prices.

Holiday and leisure facilities: The business owns a number of residential clubs which offer subsidised holiday accommodation for staff with at least three years’ service.

Sports clubs: We support an extensive range of sports activities including football, netball, golf, skiing, sailing, squash, riding and gliding.

Ticket subsidies: Ticket subsidies of 50% of the cost of plays or concerts are available. Staff may also take advantage of corporate membership to bodies such as the Science Museum.

Education subsidies: We give generous financial support to staff who wish to acquire leisure skills or continue their education, e.g. through the Open University or evening classes.

Extended leave: Staff who complete 25 years’ service can enjoy paid sabbatical leave of up to six months.

Health services: We have an occupational health service staffed by full-time doctors and health advisers.
Financial help, benefits and discounted deals: In cases of particular hardship, we will help staff with a loan. We have also negotiated a range of benefits for staff such as discounted private healthcare and a car purchase scheme, along with a number of one-off deals with hotels and amusement parks.



Write your answers in boxes 22-27 on your answer sheet.

22. Pay increases depend on the that each member of staff makes.

23. Employees must work a minimum of to be eligible for a pension.

24. Staff may take a holiday at one of the provided by the company.

25. The company pay half the seat price for and plays.

26. The company gives financial assistance for both educational courses and as part of staff development.

27. Employees may be entitled to a if they find themselves in difficult circumstances.



SECTION 3

A On the afternoon of 30th August 1989, fire broke out at Uppark, a large eighteenth- century house in Sussex. For a year builders had been replacing the lead on the roof, and by a stroke of irony, were due to finish the next day, on August 31st. Within fifteen minutes of the alarm being sounded, the fire brigade had arrived on the scene, though nothing was to survive of the priceless collection on the first floor apart from an oil painting of a dog which the firemen swept up as they finally retreated from the blaze. But due to the courage and swift action of the previous owners, the Meade-Featherstonhaugh family, and the staff, stewards and visitors to the house, who formed human chains to pass the precious pieces of porcelain, furniture and paintings out on to the lawn, 95 per cent of the contents from the ground floor and the basement were saved. As the fire continued to rage, the National Trust’s conservators were being mobilised, and that evening local stationers were especially opened to provide the bulk supplies of blotting paper so desperately needed in the salvage operation.

B The following morning, Uppark stood open to the sky. A sludge of wet charcoal covered the ground floor and basement, and in every room charred and fallen timbers lay amongst the smoke. It was a scene of utter devastation.

C After the initial sense of shock, the days which followed the fire were filled with discoveries. Helped by volunteers, the National Trust’s archaeologists and conservators swung into action, first of all marking the site out into a grid and then salvaging everything down to the last door handle. The position of each fragment was recorded, and all the debris was stored in countless dustbins before being shifted and categorised.

D There was great excitement as remnants of the lantern from the Staircase Hall were pulled out from the debris of two fallen floors, and also three weeks later when the Red Room carpet, thought to have been totally lost, was found wrapped around the remains of a piano. There was a lucky reprieve for the State Bed too. Staff who had left the scene at 3am on the night of the fire had thought its loss was inevitable, but when they returned the next morning it had escaped largely undamaged. Firemen, directed by the National Trust’s conservators from outside the Tapestry Room window, dismantled the silk-hung bed and passed it out piece by piece. Twenty minutes later the ceiling fell in.

E The scale of the task to repair Uppark was unprecedented in the National Trust. The immediate question was whether it should be done at all. A decision had to be whatever had not been damaged by the fire was exposed to the elements. Within a month, after consulting many experts and with the agreement of the National Trust’s Executive Committee, the restoration programme began. It was undertaken for three main reasons. After the fire it had become apparent just how much remained of the structure with its splendidly decorated interiors; to have pulled the house down, as one commentator suggested, would have been vandalism. Also the property was covered by insurance, so the repairs would not call upon the National Trust’s own funds. Lastly, much had been saved of the fine collection acquired especially for Uppark from 1747 by Sir Matthew Featherstonhaugh and his son Harry. These objects belonged nowhere else, and complete restoration of the house would allow them to be seen and enjoyed again in their original setting.

F The search for craftsmen and women capable of doing the intricate restoration work was nation-wide. Once the quality and skill of the individual or company had been ascertained, they had to pass an economic test, as everyjob was competitively tendered. This has had enormous benefits because not only have a number of highly skilled people come to the fore – woodcarvers for example, following in the footsteps of Grinling Gibbons – but many of them, for example plasterers, have relearnt the skills of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries which can now be of use to other country house owners when the need arises.

G In june 1994 the building programme was completed, on time and on budget. The total cost of the work to repair the house and its contents came to be nearly £20 million, largely met from insurance. In addition, it made economic sense for the National Trust to invest time and money in upgrading water and heating systems, installing modern environmental controls, and updating fire and security equipment.

H The final stages of restoration and the massive programme of reinstallation took eight months. The family and the room stewards were visibly moved when returning to their old haunts, perhaps the best testament that the spirit of Uppark had not died. But the debate will no doubt continue as to whether or not it was right to repair the house after the fire. The National Trust has done its best to remain true to Uppark; it is for others to judge the success of the project.

Note: The National Trust is a charitable organisation in Britain set up over a hundred years ago to preserve the national heritage.



Question 28-33. The text below has eight paragraphs A-H. Which paragraphs contain the following information? Write the appropriate letters, A-H, in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet.

28 the procedure for sorting through the remains of the fire

29 how Uppark looked after the fire

30 improvements made to the rebuilt Uppark

31 the selection of people to carry out the repair work

32 why the National Trust chose to rebuild Uppark

33 how people reacted to the rebuilt Uppark



Questions 34-37. Answer the questions below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 34-37 on your answer sheet.

34 On what date in 1989 should the original repairs to the roof have been completed?

35 By what method were things rescued immediately from the burning house?

36 After the fire, what did the conservators require large quantities of immediately?

37 Into what did the conservation put material recovered from the fire?
Question 38-40. Choose the correct letter, A,B,C or D. Write the correct letter in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet.

38 The fire destroyed
A all the contents of the ground floor.
B most of the contents of the basement.
C the roof of the house.
D all the contents of the first floor.

39 One of the reasons the National Trust decided to rebuild Uppark was that
A the Meade-Featherstonhaugh family wanted them to.
B the building as it stood was unsound.
C they wouldn’t have to pay for the repairs.
D nothing on this scale had been tried before.

40 Some of the craftsmen and women employed in the restoration of Uppark have benefited because
A they were very well paid for doing intricate work.
B their businesses have become more competitive.
C they were able to work with Grinling Gibbons
D they acquired skills they did not have previously.


VIEW ANSWER KEYS

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MAIL ORDER BROCHURE IELTS READING

SECTION 1

Want some great clothing ideas for your family? Our key for clothing specials in July:

M for men
W for women
C for children

For under $10
Cotton socks C – made of pure cotton for long wearing Woollen socks C – to keep young feet warm in winter
Sports socks M – to go with jeans and other casual clothes
Patterned belts W – to go with jeans and other casual clothes

For under $25
Cotton shirts W – for day and evening wear
Silk shirts M – five sizes, in designer colours, for that special social occasion T-shirts C – hard-wearing, white with a variety of animal motifs
Colour T-shirts M W – cotton and polyester blend, plain colours, no ironing

For under $50
Blue jeans M W – non-shrink, colourfast, small sizes only Silk shirts M W – plain and patterned, all sizes
Hooded jacket C – protects from the wind, 4 sizes, large strong pockets jacket W – waterproof with zipper front, all sizes
Or you can buy a gift voucher so that someone else can choose. These come in $10, $20 and $50 amounts. Additional monthly specials for July to September
July – $10 voucher with any purchase over $60
August – Travel alarm clock worth $19.95 free with purchases of $80 or more! September – Children’s backpacks. Free with any credit card purchase over $75!

Note: Postage and packing charges.
These are applied to each order as follows:

Within Australia:
$7.95 per address, regular post
$17.95 for Express Delivery Service (overnight)



Overseas:
Surface Mail (allow a minimum of two months for delivery) Airmail (allow around two weeks delivery to most destinations)

Questions 1-7. Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text? In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1. Women’s cotton socks cost less than men’s.

2. Men’s silk shirts are available in more than five colours.

3. Children’s 7-shirts come in a variety of colours.

4. The child’s jacket has four pockets.

5. If you buy clothes worth $80 in August, you will receive a free alarm clock.

6. The charge for special next-day delivery in Australia is $7.95.

7. All clothing is guaranteed to arrive within two months.

Questions 8-14: The list of New Book Releases on the following page has nine book descriptions A-I. Choose the correct title for each book from the list of book titles below. Write the correct number i-xi in boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet.



List of Book Titles

i Field Guide to Native Birds of Australia
ii The Bush on Two Wheels: 100 Top Rides
iii Bush Foods of Australian Aborigines
iv A Pictorial History of the Dinosaur in Australia
v Bushwalking in Australia
vi World Geographica
vii Driving Adventures for 4-wheel-drive Vehicles
viii Survival Techniques in the Wild
ix Encyclopaedia of Australian Wildlife
x Guide to the Art of the Australian Desert
xi Field Guide to Animals of the World

8. Book A
9. Book B
10. Book C

Example Book D vi

11. Book E
12. Book F
13. Book G
14. Book H
Example Book I vii



NEW BOOK RELEASES.

A This book describes the creativity of Aboriginal people living in the driest parts of Australia. Stunning reproductions of paintings, beautiful photography and informative text.

B Pocket-sized maps and illustrations with detailed information on the nesting sites and migration patterns of Australia. This is a classic booklet suitable for both beginner and expert.

C Packed full of information for the avid hiker, this book is a must. Photographs, maps and practical advice will guide your journeys on foot through the forests of the southern continent.

D More than-an atlas – this book contains maps, photographs and an abundance of information on the land and climate of countries from around the globe.

E Australia’s premier mountain biking guidebook – taking you through a host of national parks and state forests.

F Here’s the A-Z of Australian native animals – take an in-depth look at their lives and characteristics, through fantastic photographs and informative text.

G Graphic artists have worked with researchers and scientists to illustrate how these prehistoric animals lived and died on the Australian continent.

H A definitive handbook on outdoor safety – with a specific focus on equipment, nutrition, first aid, special clothing and bush skills.

I Detailed guides to 15 scenic car tours that will take you onto fascinating wilderness tracks and along routes that you could otherwise have missed.




SECTION 2.

Read the advertisement below and answer questions 15-20.

WORK & TRAVEL USA

Do you want to have the best summer holiday ever?
Have you just graduated and want to escape for a unique experience abroad?

Only $1950 will make It all happen! This unbeatable program fee includes:
• return flight from Sydney to Los Angeles (onward travel in USA not included)
• 3 months’ insurance cover
• 2 nights’ accommodation on arrival plus meet and greet and airport transfer
• arrival orientation by experienced InterExchange staff
• visa application fees.

You also have:
• access to a J-l visa enabling you to work in the USA
• an extensive directory of employers
• InterExchange support throughout the program
• 24-hour emergency support throughout the length of the program Call toll-free 1800 678 738

InterExchange has 50 yeors’ experience in international student exchange programs. 18,000 students from around the world travel yearly to the USA on this very program. InterExchange con also offer you work opportunities in other countries.

WHAT IS INTEREXCHANGE? InterExchange, one of the world’s leading operators of international exchange programs and related services:
• is a non-profit, non-governmental organisation
• has 700 professional staff in 30 countries worldwide
• was founded in 1947

InterExchange operates these programs for students all around the world. It offers you trained and travelled staff, plus full support during the application process. You can choose any job that interests you anywhere in the USA, whether that is working in a law firm in Boston, a famous ski resort in Colorado or serving coffee and doughnuts in the buzzing streets of New York. You can select the period you work and the period you travel; you may want to work for 1 month and travel for 3, or work the entire duration of your stay. The choice is yours.

YOU CAN TAKE UP THIS OPPORTUNITY IF YOU ARE:

• a full-time student at an Australian university or TAFE college
• presently enrolled, or finishing this year, or you have deferred a year of study
• over 18 years old by November in the academic year in which you apply to InterExchange
• enthusiastic about the experience of a lifetime
Questions 15-20. Do the following statements agree with the information given in the advertisement. In boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

15. The program cost includes internal flights within the USA.

16. Emergency assistance offered in the program includes legal advice.

17. InterExchange offers similar programs in countries other than the USA.

18. InterExchange is part of a government program.

19. There are no restrictions on the type of job you can do.

20. There is an upper age limit for applicants.

NETSCAPE. File edit view go communicator help



Questions 21-27. Each of the short paragraphs below (21-27) gives information about Arthur Phillip College. Read each paragraph and choose which of the linked sections of the website, A-L, would contain this information. Write the correct letter A-L in boxes 21-17 on your answer sheet.

21. All students receive a transcript of results and relevant award documentation when they end their studies with the College.

22. On enrolment, all students receive automatic membership to the Social Club and Public Speaking Club. Students may choose to participate in any arranged activities. The College encourages and promotes interaction between students and teaching and non-teaching staff.

23. Successful completion and the achievement of an A or B result in some courses will enable students to achieve advanced standing in these subjects if they proceed to university study. For a list of the courses acceptable to a particular university, e-mail us your request with the name of the university and the course you are interested in.

24. Arthur Phillip College is one of the top business colleges in Sydney, Australia. The College offers a wide range of educational and training programs in business and related areas. Its accredited vocational training courses are designed to meet the needs of individual students and industry.

25. At Arthur Phillip College you will learn from lectures, seminars, case studies, group projects, individual assignments and class workshops. Lectures and seminars present concepts and ideas and provide for question-and-answer sessions. Students are expected to take an active role in the learning process through class participation, presentations and projects.

26. Courses at Arthur Phillip College involve an average of 25 hours per week of tuition time, with supervised group study accounting for a further 5 hours per week. At least 10 hours per week of individual study is also recommended for most courses.

27. During this program, you will meet the Director of Studies, teachers and key administrative staff such as the Accommodation Officer and Student Counsellor so that, right from your first day, you will know how each of them can help you during your time at the College.


SECTION 3 THE LACK OF SLEEP

Section A: It is estimated that the average man or woman needs between seven-and-a-half and eight hours’ sleep a night. Some can manage on a lot less. Baroness Thatcher, for example, was reported to be able to get by on four hours’ sleep a night when she was Prime Minister of Britain. Dr Jill Wilkinson, senior lecturer in psychology at Surrey University and co-author of ‘Psychology in Counselling and Therapeutic Practice’, states that healthy individuals sleeping less than five hours or even as little as two hours in every 24 hours are rare, but represent a sizeable minority.

Section B: The latest beliefs are that the main purposes of sleep are to enable the body to rest and replenish, allowing time for repairs to take place and for tissue to be regenerated. One supporting piece of evidence for this rest-and-repair theory is that production of the growth hormone somatotropin, which helps tissue to regenerate, peaks while we are asleep. Lack of sleep, however, can compromise the immune system, muddle thinking, cause depression, promote anxiety and encourage irritability.

Section C: Researchers in San Diego deprived a group of men of sleep between Sam and lam on just one night, and found that levels of their bodies’ natural defences against viral infections had fallen significantly when measured the following morning. ‘Sleep is essential for our physical and emotional well-being and there are few aspects of daily living that are not disrupted by the lack of it’, says Professor William Regelson of Virginia University, a specialist in insomnia. ‘Because it can seriously undermine the functioning of the immune system, sufferers are vulnerable to infection.’

Section D: For many people, lack of sleep is rarely a matter of choice. Some have problems getting to sleep, others with staying asleep until the morning. Despite popular belief that sleep is one long event, research shows that, in an average night, there are five stages of sleep and four cycles, during which the sequence of stages is repeated. In the first light phase, the heart rate and blood pressure go down and the muscles relax. In the next two stages, sleep gets progressively deeper. In stage four, usually reached after an hour, the slumber is so deep that, if awoken, the sleeper would be confused and disorientated. It is in this phase that sleep-walking can occur, with an average episode lasting no more than 15 minutes.

In the fifth stage, the rapid eye movement (REM) stage, the heartbeat quickly gets back to normal levels, brain activity accelerates to daytime heights and above and the eyes move constantly beneath closed lids as if the sleeper is looking at something. During this stage, the body is almost paralysed. This REM phase is also the time when we dream.

Section E: Sleeping patterns change with age, which is why many people over 60 develop insomnia. In America, that age group consumes almost half the sleep medication on the market. One theory for the age-related change is that it is due to hormonal changes. The temperature rise occurs at daybreak in the young, but at three or four in the morning in the elderly. Age aside, it is estimated that roughly one in three people suffer some kind of sleep disturbance. Causes can be anything from pregnancy and stress to alcohol and heart disease. Smoking is a known handicap to sleep, with one survey showing that ex-smokers got to sleep in 18 minutes rather than their earlier average of 52 minutes.

Section F: Apart from self-help therapy such as regular exercise, there are psychological treatments, including relaxation training and therapy aimed at getting rid of pre-sleep worries and anxieties. There is also sleep reduction therapy, where the aim is to improve sleep quality by strictly regulating the time people go to bed and when they get up. Medication is regarded by many as a last resort and often takes the form of sleeping pills, normally benzodiazepines, which are minor tranquillizers.

Section G: Professor Regelson advocates the use of melatonin for treating sleep disorders. Melatonin is a naturally secreted hormone, located in the pineal gland deep inside the brain. The main function of the hormone is to control the body’s biological clock, so we know when to sleep and when to wake. The gland detects light reaching it through the eye; when there is no light, it secretes the melatonin into the bloodstream, lowering the body temperature and helping to induce sleep. Melatonin pills contain a synthetic version of the hormone and are commonly used for jet lag as well as for sleep disturbance. John Nicholls, sales manager of one of America’s largest health food shops, claims that sales of the pill have increased dramatically. He explains that it is sold in capsules, tablets, lozenges and mixed with herbs. It is not effective for all insomniacs, but many users have weaned themselves off sleeping tablets as a result of its application.


Questions 28-40. The passage has seven sections labelled A-G. Which section contains the following information? Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 28-35 on your answer sheet. NB You may use any letter more than once.

28 the different amounts of sleep that people require

29 an investigation into the results of sleep deprivation

30 some reasons why people may suffer from sleep disorders

31 lifestyle changes which can help overcome sleep-related problems

32. a process by which sleep helps us to remain mentally and physically healthy

33 claims about a commercialised man-made product for sleeplessness

34 the role of physical changes in sleeping habits

35 the processes involved during sleep



Questions 36-40. Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage? In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet, write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

36. Sleep can cure some illnesses.

37. The various stages of sleep occur more than once a night.

38. Dreaming and sleep-walking occur at similar stages of sleep.

39. Sleepers move around a lot during the REM stage of sleep.

40. The body temperature rises relatively early in elderly people.


VIEW ANSWER KEYS

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