All posts by Jomon P John

PSORIASIS OET READING

Text A
Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory disease of the immune system. It mostly affects the skin and joints, but it may also affect the fingernails, the toenails, the soft tissues of the genitals and the inner side of the mouth. Psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis can be associated with other diseases and conditions, including diabetes, cardiovascular disease and depression.
Psoriasis Facts
• Psoriasis is a serious medical condition.
• Approximately 7.5 million people in the United States have psoriasis and suffer from this medical condition more helplessly.
• Psoriasis can occur at any point of life time but primarily seen in adults. Up to 40 percent of people with psoriasis experience joint inflammation that produces symptoms of arthritis. This condition is called psoriatic arthritis. Psoriatic arthritis patients also experience other arthritis symptoms.
• Psoriasis usually occurs on the scalp, knees, elbows, hands and feet. Approximately 80 percent of those affected with psoriasis have a mild to moderate disease, while 20 percent have moderate to severe psoriasis affecting more than 5 percent of the body surface area.
• Plaque psoriasis is the most common form affecting about 80 to 90 percent of psoriasis, which is characterized by patches of raised, reddish skin covered with silvery-white scales.

Text B Comorbidities Associated with Psoriasis;
• The incidence of Crohn`s disease and ulcerative colitis, two types of inflammatory bowel disease, is 3.8 to 7.5 times greater in psoriasis patients than in the general population.
• Patients with psoriasis also have an increased incidence of lymphoma, heart disease, obesity, type II diabetes and metabolic syndrome. Depression and suicide, smoking and alcohol consumption are also more common in psoriasis patients.
• Psoriasis can have a substantial psychological and emotional impact on patients.
• The prevalence of lugubrious in patients with psoriasis may be as high as 50 percent. Studies have shown that psoriasis patients experience physical and mental disabilities, just like patients with other chronic illnesses such as cancer, arthritis, hypertension, heart disease and diabetes.

Text C Treatment Options for Psoriasis
• Topical treatments are helpful for mild to moderate psoriasis but do not tend to be effective for treating moderate to severe psoriasis.
• Topical treatments include anthralin, coal tar, emollients, salicylic acid, tazarotene, topical corticosteroids and forms of vitamin D. These topical medications can sometimes be used together with other medications.
• Topical corticosteroids are available in many strengths and formulations.
• Psoriasis patients with moderate to severe psoriasis can be treated with traditional systemics, phototherapy or biologic agents.
• In cases of more extensive psoriasis, topical agents may be used in combination with phototherapy, or traditional systemic or biologic medications.
• Phototherapy treatment includes narrowband and broadband ultraviolet B (UVB) and psoralen plus UVA (PUVA).
• Regular systemic treatments include acitretin, cyclosporine and methotrexate. Since biologic therapies, sporadically propounded, target the immune system, it is important to prevent infections during therapy. Patients need to be monitored and evaluated periodically.


Text D The PHAROS EX-308 Excimer Laser
While mild cases of psoriasis can sometimes be treated with specific creams and ointments (Anthralin. Topical retinoids, Calcineurin inhibitors, Coal tar and others are known to be very much effective), many patients do not experience relief with these treatments. For those patients, phototherapy can be a more successful option.
Phototherapy uses UV light to decrease inflammation in areas affected by psoriasis, assisting in clearing the itchy lesions. Laser such as PHAROS EX-308 Excimer Laser allows doctors to administer phototherapy in an especially effective way. This laser allows easy application of highly-concentrated and customized UV light directly to the areas of affected skin, making the treatment as effective as possible without affecting the surrounding skin.


1. More or less like conditions arising in other diseases. Answer .
2. Traditionals procedures. Answer .
3. An effective way of treating. Answer .
4. Facts with respect to new diseases that might arise. Answer .
5. Affect people of all ages. Answer .
6. People have no choice but to endure. Answer .
7. Deal with depression. Answer .


Questions 8-14 Answer each of the questions, 8-14, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts.
8. What phototherapy may entail? Answer .
9. What psoriasis can be connected to? Answer .
10. Which therapy or what is often not suggested? Answer .
11. What is the initial treatment for mild to moderate psoriasis in its beginning stages? Answer .
12. What is the outcome of the research conducted? Answer .
13. What is the advanced treatment option available for the patients? Answer
14. What will the patients with psoriatic arthritis eventually develop? Answer


Questions 15-20 Complete each of the sentences, 15-20, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts.
15. Patients show increasing levels of _________________
16. The disease can have _________________ effects on sufferers.
17. Psoriasis can be associated with other diseases such as diabetes, ________________ and depression.
18. _________________ include acitretin, cyclosporine and methotrexate.
19. Phototherapy provides necessary help in wiping out _____________
20. Occurrence of two types of inflammatory bowel disease, is________________ . in psoriasis patients.

PART B. Choose A, B or C
1. Blood cell levels will be low;
A. If there are too many immunoglobulins.
B. If there are too many myeloma cells in the bone marrow.
C. If there are less antibodies.
Tests to Find Multiple Myeloma Blood counts: The complete blood count (CBC) is a test that measures the levels of red cells, white cells, and platelets in the blood. The most common finding is a low red blood cell count (anemia).
Quantitative immunoglobulins: This test measures the blood levels of the different antibodies. There are several different types of antibodies in the blood: IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM. The levels of these immunoglobulins are measured to see if any are abnormally high or low. In multiple myeloma, the level of one type may be high while the others are low.

2. What is right about immunoglobulin?
A. Finding a monoclonal immunoglobulin in the blood may be the first step in diagnosing multiple myeloma.
B .Produces different types of proteins.
C .It will not produce all the exact same antibody.
Electrophoresis: The immunoglobulin produced by myeloma cells is abnormal because it is monoclonal. Serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP) is a test that measures the immunoglobulins in the blood and can find a monoclonal immunoglobulin. Then, another test, such as immunofixation or immunoelectrophoresis, is used to determine the exact type of abnormal antibody (IgG or some other type). This abnormal protein is known by several different names, including monoclonal immunoglobulin, M protein, M spike, and paraprotein. Immunoglobulins are made up of protein chains: 2 long (heavy) chains and 2 shorter (light) chains. Sometimes the kidneys excrete pieces of the M protein into the urine. This urine protein, known as Bence Jones protein, is the part of the immunoglobulin called the light chain. The tests used for finding a monoclonal immunoglobulin in urine are called urine protein electrophoresis (UPEP) and urine immunofixation. These are done most often on urine that has been collected over a 24-hour period, not just on a routine urine sample.

3. What is correct about Free Light Chains?
A. Ratio of kappa and lambda is 1:1.
B. Come in handy when it is not possible to diagnose by other methods.
C. Possibly, no differences in ratio arises with differences in light chains.
Free light chains: This test measures the amount of light chains in the blood, being a possible sign of myeloma or light chain amyloidosis. This is most helpful in the rare cases of myeloma in which no M protein is found by SPEP. Since the SPEP measures the levels of intact (whole) immunoglobulins, it cannot measure the amount of light chains.
This test also measures the light chain ratio which is used to see if one type of light chain is more common than the other. Kappa and lambda, in most cases, are present in equal amounts in the blood,. If one kind of light chain is more common than the other, the ratio will be different, which can be a sign of myeloma.


4. The notice deals with;
A. A chromosomal structure testing.
B. FISH and its effectiveness.
C. Appropriateness of the results.
Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) is similar to cytogenetic testing. It uses special fluorescent dyes that only attach to specific parts of chromosomes. FISH can find most chromosome changes (such as translocations and deletions) that can be seen under a microscope in standard cytogenetic tests, as well as some changes too small to be seen with usual cytogenetic testing. FISH can be used to look for specific changes in chromosomes. It can be used on regular blood as well as bone marrow samples. It’s very accurate and because the cells don’t have to grow in a dish first, results are often available within a couple of days.

5. What is right about BUN?
A. Patient may lose his / her memory.
B. Differences in electrolytes.
C. The higher the Cr levels, the greater is the effect on the kidney.
Blood chemistry tests: Levels of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (Cr), albumin, calcium, and other electrolytes will be checked. BUN and Cr levels show how well your kidneys are working. Higher levels mean that kidney function is impaired. This is common in people with myeloma. Albumin is a protein found in the blood. Low levels can be a sign of more advanced myeloma. Calcium levels may be higher in people with advanced myeloma. High calcium levels can cause severe symptoms of ennui, weakness, and confusion. Levels of electrolytes such as sodium and potassium may be affected as well.

6. Bone marrow biopsy;
A. Is painful.
B. Is painless.
C. Helps detect myeloma.
Bone marrow biopsy: In bone marrow aspiration, the back of the pelvic bone is numbed with local anesthetic. Then, a needle is inserted into the bone, and a syringe is used to remove a small amount of liquid bone marrow. This causes a brief sharp pain. Then for the biopsy, a needle is used to remove little amount of bone and marrow, about 1/16- inch across and 1-inch long. Patients may feel some pressure during the biopsy, but it usually isn’t painful. There is some soreness in the biopsy area when the numbing medicine wears off. Most patients can go home immediately after the procedure. A doctor will look at the bone marrow tissue under a microscope to see the appearance, size, and shape of the cells, how the cells are arranged and to determine if there are myeloma cells in the bone marrow and, if so, how many.


PART C. TEXT 1: ALL ABOUT HEMOCHROMATOSIS


Hemochromatosis is the most common form of iron overload disease. Primary hemochromatosis, also called hereditary hemochromatosis, is an inherited disease. Secondary hemochromatosis is caused by anaemia, alcoholism, and other disorders. Juvenile hemochromatosis and neonatal hemochromatosis are two additional forms of the disease. Juvenile hemochromatosis leads to severe iron overload and liver and heart disease in adolescents and young adults between the ages of 15 and 30. The neonatal form causes rapid iron build-up in a baby`s liver that can lead to death.

Hemochromatosis causes the body to absorb and store too much iron. Once it grips on anyone, it will be difficult to free that person from its clutches. The redundant iron builds up in the body`s organs and damages them. Without treatment, the disease can cause the liver, heart, and pancreas to fail. Iron is an essential nutrient found in many foods. The greatest amount is found in red meat and iron-fortified breads and cereals. In the body, iron becomes part of haemoglobin, a molecule in the blood that transports oxygen from the lungs to all body tissues. Healthy people usually take in about 10 percent of the iron contained in the food they eat, which meets normal dietary requirements. People with hemochromatosis absorb up to 30 percent of iron. Over time, they absorb and keep in their body between five to 20 times more iron than the body may be in quest of. Because the body has no natural way to rid itself of the unwanted or superfluous iron, it is stored in body tissues, specifically the liver, heart, and pancreas.

Hereditary hemochromatosis is mainly caused by a drawback, a flaw in a gene called HFE, which helps regulate the amount of iron absorbed from food. The two known mutations of HFE are C282Y and H63D. C282Y is the most important because it is this which can lead to disturbance in taking the helm. In people who inherit C282Y from both parents, the body absorbs too much iron and hemochromatosis can result. Those who inherit the defective gene from only one parent are carriers for the disease but usually do not develop it; however, they still may have a little than orderly iron absorption. Neither juvenile hemochromatosis nor neonatal hemochromatosis are caused by an HFE defect. Juvenile and neonatal hemochromatosis are caused by a mutation in a gene called hemojuvelin.

Hereditary hemochromatosis is one of the most common genetic disorders in the United States. It most often affects Caucasians of Northern European descent, although other ethnic groups are also affected. About five people out of 1,000 – 0.5 percent – of the U.S. Caucasian population carry two copies of the hemochromatosis gene and are susceptible to developing the disease. One out of every 8 to 12 people is a carrier of one abnormal gene. Hemochromatosis is less common in African Americans, Asian Americans, Hispanics/Latinos, and American Indians. Although both men and women can inherit the gene defect, men are more likely than women to be diagnosed with hereditary hemochromatosis at a younger age. On average, men develop symptoms and are diagnosed between 30 to 50 years of age. For women, the average age of diagnosis is about 50.

Joint pain is the most common complaint of people with hemochromatosis. Other common symptoms include debility, abdominal pain and heart problems. However, many people have no symptoms when they are diagnosed. If the disease is not detected and treated early, iron may accumulate in body tissues and eventually lead to serious problems such as arthritis; liver disease (including an enlarged liver); cirrhosis; cancer; liver failure; damage to the pancreas, possibly causing diabetes; brain fog; heart abnormalities, such as irregular heart rhythms or congestive heart failure; impotence; early menopause; abnormal pigmentation of the skin, making it look gray or bronze; thyroid deficiency; damage to the adrenal glands; constant fatigue etc.



7. According to Paragraph 1, hemochromatosis occurs due to;
A. An excess of iron in the blood.
B . A decrease in the quantity of iron in the blood.
C. A genetic disorder. D .Alcoholism
8. In one of the forms of hemochromatosis, which one of the following conditions occurs?
A. Anaemic people are more prone to hemochromatosis
B It can be more fatal as the quantity of the iron increases more and more
C. It can be the result of some genetic disorder but may not lead to death
D. None of this above
9. According to paragraph 2, the patient`s body shows unusual capabilities of;
A. Absorbing iron from food eaten.
B. Storing the iron derived from the food.
C. Absorption and storage of iron.
D. Retaining 20 times more than the iron required.
10. In paragraph 2, which word or phrase may mean the following: To cause someone or something to be free from an unpleasant or harmful thing?
A. Superfluous
B. Free from clutches
C. Rid off
D. Grips on
11. According to paragraph 3, the affected people;
A. May show the presence of defective genes from both the parents.
B. May take defective genes from a single parent.
C. Show capabilities of absorbing and retaining more than the iron required for the body.
D. Show the presence of only C282Y.
12. Which word in the paragraph 3, may mean organizeor manage?
A. Take the helm
B. Orderly
C. Regulate
D. None of the above
13. Paragraph 4 deals more with;
A. Symptoms and diagnosis
B .The risk factors of hemochromatosis
C .Hereditary hemochromatosis
D. How common it is in other countries
14. Which one of the following is considered a major symptom?
A. Arthritis
B. Skin coloration
C. Joint pain
D. Brain fog



PART C. TEXT 2: CHRONIC MYELOGENOUS LEUKEMIA
Leukemia is a type of cancer that starts in the blood or blood-forming tissues. There are many different types of leukemia, and treatment is different for each one. Chronic leukemias develop in a lackadaisical way in comparison with that of acute leukemias, which show great momentum and multiplication celerity. But CL can be just as life threatening. Chronic myelogenous leukemia is commonly referred to as CML. Other names for this type of cancer include chronic myeloid leukemia, chronic myelocytic leukemia, and chronic granulocytic leukemia. This is a cancer of the white blood cells. In CML, blast cells, or immature white blood cells, form and multiply uncontrollably; they crowd out all the other types of necessary blood cells.

CML has different phases of progression. Which phase the disease is in determines the appropriate treatment. The phases are based on the number of blast cells present and include: the chronic phase, the accelerated phase, and the blast crisis phase. The Chronic Phase: This is the earliest stage of CML, and you may have some symptoms or none at all. During this phase, your white blood cells can still fight infections in your body. The Accelerated Phase: In this phase, your red blood cell counts are low, and anemia (not enough iron in your blood) may occur.

Platelet levels are also reduced, which may cause easy bruising or bleeding because platelets help to form blood clots. The amount of blast cells increases. A fairly common complication at this point is a swollen spleen, which may cause stomach pain. The Blast Crisis Phase: A large number of blast cells are present in this advanced phase. Symptoms in this phase are more severe and can be life threatening.

Genetic mutation is known to be the driving factor for this disease. Doctors do not know what implants this initial mutation but it does happen in an unusual way. In humans, there are 23 pairs of chromosomes. In individuals with CML, part of chromosome 9 is switched with a piece of chromosome 22. This makes a short chromosome 22 and a very long chromosome 9. The short chromosome 22 is called the Philadelphia chromosome, and is present in 90 percent of CML patients. Genes from chromosomes 9 and 22 then combine to form a gene, the BCR-ABL gene that enables specific blood cells to multiply uncontrollably, causing CML.

Because CML generally does not cause symptoms in its early stages, the cancer is often detected during a routine blood test. When there are symptoms, they are general and can be symptoms of other health conditions as well. Symptoms may include fatigue, night sweats, fever etc. If tests suggest that you may have cancer, a bone marrow biopsy is performed. This is to get a sample of bone marrow to send to a lab for analysis. Once diagnosed, tests will be done to explore the extent of disease in your body. A complete blood work-up is typically ordered, along with genetic tests done in a laboratory. Imaging tests such as an MRI, ultrasound, and CT scan can also be used to determine the extent of the disease.

Targeted therapies are typically used first in CML treatment. These are drugs that attack a specific part of the cancer cell to kill it. In the case of CML, these drugs block the protein made by the BCR-ABL gene. They may include imatinib, dasatinib, or nilotinib. These are newer therapies that have been very successful; they are truly far from being too perilous. Chemotherapy involves using drugs to kill cancer cells. These drugs are systemic, which means they travel through your entire body via your bloodstream. They can be given intravenously or orally, depending on the specific drug. They are a common cancer treatment with side effects that may be intense, but may not lead to precarious conditions. A bone marrow transplant (also called a blood stem cell transplant) is used when other treatments have failed; this is because those who opt for it go for broke in most of the cases. There is a significant chance of adverse side effects. In this type of transplant, chemotherapy is used to kill the cancerous cells in your bone marrow before healthy donor cells are infused into your blood to replace them. Side effects of this procedure vary widely but can include minor things such as chills and flushing or major complications like anemia, infections, and cataracts.



15. According to paragraph 1, which one of the following statements is true?
A. Chronic leukemia grows at the same speed as that of acute leukemia.
B. Only acute leukemia can be much more fatal than chronic leukemia.
C. Leukemia is a condition in which blood cells start multiplying at a constant speed.
D. .Acute leukemia grows at a rapid speed.
16. Which word in paragraph 1 may suggest the following meaning: slow in movement, showing little energy or enthusiasm?
A. Momentum
B. Lackadaisical
C. Celerity
D .None of the above
17. Paragraph 2 talks more about;
A. Development stages of the leukemia.
B. Different phases of leukemia.
C. Progression of CML.
D. How CML occurs.
18. According to paragraph 4, which one of the following statements is true?
A. The gene that grows out of the fusion of genes from chromosomes 9 and 22 plays a crucial role in multiplication of the blood cells which eventually leads to CML
B. Chromosomes 9 and 22 combine in an unusual way to give birth to BCR – IBL
C. Most of the patients across the globe show the combination of the genes from chromosome 9 and chromosome 22
D. None of the above
19. Paragraph 4 talks more about;
A. CML tests
B. Symptoms of CML
C. The procedure for identification of CML
D. How CML is diagnosed
20. According to paragraph 5, which one of the following statements is correct?
A. A complete blood report will be prescribed at the end of the initial diagnosis
B. An ultrasound should be performed before the blood tests
C. If the reports are suggestive of cancer, then a bone marrow biopsy is performed
D. None of the above
21. Paragraph 6 give notice about;
A The three most common treatment options for CML
B Differences among targeted therapy, chemotherapy and bone marrow transplants
C Why a bone marrow transplant is a better option than chemotherapy
D How targeted therapy is better than the other two treatment options
22. Which word or phrase suggests the following meaning: Risky?
A Perilous
B Go for broke
C Precarious
D None of the above


How did it go? Please share your feedback in the comment section below:

VIEW ANSWER KEYSOET READINGOET SPEAKINGOET ROLE PLAYSOET LETTER WRITINGOET LISTENING

We hope this information has been valuable to you. If so, please consider a monetary donation to Lifestyle Training Centre via UPI. Your support is greatly appreciated.

Would you like to undergo training for OET, PTE, IELTS, Duolingo, Phonetics, or Spoken English with us? Kindly contact us now!

📱 Call/WhatsApp/Text: +91 9886926773

📧 Email: [email protected]

🗺️ Find Us on Google Map

Visit us in person by following the directions on Google Maps. We look forward to welcoming you to the Lifestyle Training Centre.

Follow Lifestyle Training Centre on social media:

Thank you very much!

PARACETAMOL OVERDOSE: OET READING

TEXT A: Paracetamol: contraindications and interactions
4.4 Special warnings and precautions for use
Where analgesics are used long-term (>3 months) with administration every two days or more frequently, headache may develop or increase. Headache induced by overuse of analgesics (MOH medication-overuse headache) should not be treated by dose increase. In such cases, the use of analgesics should be discontinued in consultation with the doctor.
Care is advised in the administration of paracetamol to patients with alcohol dependency, severe renal or severe hepatic impairment. Other contraindications are: shock and acute inflammation of liver due to hepatitis C virus. The hazards of overdose are greater in those with non-cirrhotic alcoholic liver disease.
4.5 Interaction with other medicinal products and other forms of interaction
• Anticoagulants – the effect of warfarin and other coumarins may be enhanced by prolonged regular use of paracetamol with increased risk of bleeding. Occasional doses have no significant effect.
• Metoclopramide – may increase speed of absorption of paracetamol.
• Domperidone – may increase speed of absorption of paracetamol.
• Colestyramine – may reduce absorption if given within one hour of paracetamol.
• Imatinib–restriction or avoidance of concomitant regular paracetamol use should be taken with imatinib.
A total of 169 drugs (1042 brand and generic names) are known to interact with paracetamol. 14 major drug interactions (e.g., amyl nitrite)
62 moderate drug interactions
93 minor drug interactions
A total of 118 brand names are known to have paracetamol in their formulation, e.g. Lemsip


Text D
Clinical Assessment

• Commonly, patients who have taken a paracetamol overdose are asymptomatic for the first 24 hours or just have nausea and vomiting
• Hepatic necrosis (elevated transaminases, right upper quadrant pain and jaundice) begins to develop after 24 hours and can progress to acute liver failure (ALF)
• Patients may also develop:
• Encephalopathy • Renal failure – usually occurs around day three
• Oliguria • Lactic acidosis
• Hypoglycaemia
History
• Number of tablets, formulation, any concomitant tablets
• Time of overdose
• Suicide risk – was a note left?
• Any alcohol taken (acute alcohol ingestion will inhibit liver enzymes and may reduce the production of the toxin NAPQI, whereas chronic alcoholism may increase it)



Questions 1-20

1 the various symptoms of patients who have taken too much paracetamol?
2 the precise levels of paracetamol in the blood which require urgent intervention?
3 the steps to be taken when treating a paracetamol overdose patient?
4 whether paracetamol overdose was intentional?
5 the number of products containing paracetamol?
6 what to do if there are no details available about the time of the overdose?
7 dealing with paracetamol overdose patients who have not received adequate nutrition?


Questions 8-13. Answer each of the questions, 8-13, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts. Each answer may include words, numbers or both.
8 If paracetamol is used as a long-term painkiller, what symptom may get worse?
9 It may be dangerous to administer paracetamol to a patient with which viral condition?
10 What condition may develop in an overdose patient who presents with jaundice?
11 What condition may develop on the third day after an overdose?
12 What drug can be administered orally within 10 – 12 hours as an alternative to acetylcysteine?
13 What treatment can be used if a single overdose has occurred less than an hour ago?


Questions 14-20. Complete each of the sentences, 14-20, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts. Each answer may include words, numbers or both.
14 If a patient has taken metoclopramide alongside paracetamol, this may affect the__________ of the paracetamol.
15 After 24 hours, an overdose patient may present with pain in the .
16 For the first 24 hours after overdosing, patients may only have such symptoms as______________
17 Acetylcysteine should be administered to patients with a paracetamol level above the high-risk treatment line who are taking any type of _______________medication.
18 A non-high-risk patient should be treated for paracetamol poisoning if their paracetamol level is above_______________ mg/litre 8 hours after overdosing.
19 A high-risk patient who overdosed _________________hours ago should be given acetylcysteine if their paracetamol level is 25 mg/litre or higher.
20 If a patient does not require further acetylcysteine, they should be given treatment categorised as_____________ only.



PART B. For questions 1-6, choose the answer (A, B or C)

1. This guideline extract says that the nurse in charge
A. must supervise the opening of the controlled drug cupboard.
B should make sure that all ward cupboard keys are kept together.
C can delegate responsibility for the cupboard keys to another ward.

Medicine Cupboard Keys: The keys for the controlled drug cupboard are the responsibility of the nurse in charge. They may be passed to a registered nurse in order for them to carry out their duties and returned to the nurse in charge. If the keys for the controlled drug cupboard go missing, the locks must be changed and pharmacy informed and an incident form completed. The controlled drug cupboard keys should be kept separately from the main body of keys. Apart from in exceptional circumstances, the keys should not leave the ward or department. If necessary, the nurse in charge should arrange for the keys to be held in a neighbouring ward or department by the nurse in charge there.

2. When seeking consent for a post-mortem examination, it is necessary to
A. give a valid reason for conducting it.
B allow all relatives the opportunity to decline it.
C only raise the subject after death has occurred.
Post-Mortem Consent: A senior member of the clinical team, preferably the Consultant in charge of the care, should raise the possibility of a post-mortem examination with the most appropriate person to give consent. The person consenting will need an explanation of the reasons for the post-mortem examination and what it hopes to achieve. The first approach should be made as soon as it is apparent that a post-mortem examination may be desirable, as there is no need to wait until the patient has died. Many relatives are more prepared for the consenting procedure if they have had time to think about it beforehand.

3. The purpose of these notes about an incinerator is to
A help maximise its efficiency.
B give guidance on certain safety procedures.
C recommend a procedure for waste separation.
Low-cost incinerator: General operating notes: 3.2.1 Hospital waste management: Materials with high fuel values such as plastics, paper, card and dry textile will help maintain high incineration temperature. If possible, a good mix of waste materials should be added with each batch. This can best be achieved by having the various types of waste material loaded into separate bags at source, i.e., wards and laboratories, and clearly labelled. It is not recommended that the operator sorts and mixes waste prior to incineration as this is potentially hazardous. If possible, some plastic materials should be added with each batch of waste as this burns at high temperatures. However, care and judgement will be needed, as too much plastic will create dense dark smoke.


4. What does this manual tell us about spacer devices?
A Patients should try out a number of devices with their inhaler.
B They enable a patient to receive more of the prescribed medicine.
C Children should be given spacers which are smaller than those for adults.
Manual extract: Spacer devices for asthma patients: Spacer devices remove the need for co-ordination between actuation of a pressurized metered-dose inhaler and inhalation. In addition, the device allows more time for evaporation of the propellant so that a larger proportion of the particles can be inhaled and deposited in the lungs. Spacer devices are particularly useful for patients with poor inhalation technique, for children, for patients requiring higher doses, for nocturnal asthma, and for patients prone to candidiasis with inhaled corticosteroids. The size of the spacer is important, the larger spacers with a one-way valve being most effective. It is important to prescribe a spacer device that is compatible with the metered-dose inhaler. Spacer devices should not be regarded as interchangeable; patients should be advised not to switch between spacer devices.

5. The email is reminding staff that the
A benefits to patients of using bedrails can outweigh the dangers.
B number of bedrail-related accidents has reached unacceptable levels.
C patient’s condition should be central to any decision about the use of bedrails.
To: All Staff
Subject: Use of bed rails
Please note the following.
Patients in hospital may be at risk of falling from bed for many reasons including poor mobility, dementia or delirium, visual impairment, and the effects of treatment or medication. Bedrails can be used as safety devices intended to reduce risk. However, bedrails aren’t appropriate for all patients, and their use involves risks. National data suggests around 1,250 patients injure themselves on bedrails annually, usually scrapes and bruises to their lower legs. Statistics show 44,000 reports of patient falls from bed annually resulting in 11 deaths, while deaths due to bedrail entrapment occur less than one every two years, and are avoidable if the relevant advice is followed. Staff should continue to take great care to avoid bedrail entrapment, but be aware that in hospital settings there may be a greater risk of harm to patients who fall out of bed.

6. What does this extract from a handbook tell us about analeptic drugs?
A They may be useful for patients who are not fully responsive.
B Injections of these drugs will limit the need for physiotherapy.
C Care should be taken if they are used over an extended period.
Analeptic drugs: Respiratory stimulants (analeptic drugs) have a limited place in the treatment of ventilatory failure in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. They are effective only when given by intravenous injection or infusion and have a short duration of action. Their use has largely been replaced by ventilatory support. However, occasionally when ventilatory support is contra-indicated and in patients with hypercapnic respiratory failure who are becoming drowsy or comatose, respiratory stimulants in the short term may arouse patients sufficiently to co-operate and clear their secretions.
Respiratory stimulants can also be harmful in respiratory failure since they stimulate non-respiratory as well as respiratory muscles. They should only be given under expert supervision in hospital and must be combined with active physiotherapy. At present, there is no oral respiratory stimulant available for long- term use in chronic respiratory failure.

PART C. TEXT 1: PATIENT SAFETY. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D)

Highlighting a collaborative initiative to improve patient safety
In a well-documented case in November 2004, a female patient called Mary was admitted to a hospital in Seattle, USA, to receive treatment for a brain aneurysm. What followed was a tragedy, made worse by the fact that it needn’t have occurred at all. The patient was mistakenly injected with the antiseptic chlorhexidine. It happened, the hospital says, because of ‘confusion over the three identical stainless-steel bowls in the procedure room containing clear liquids — chlorhexidine, contrast dye and saline solution’. Doctors tried amputating one of Mary’s legs to save her life, but the damage to her organs was too great: she died 19 days later.

This and similar incidents are what inspired Professor Dixon-Woods of the University of Cambridge, UK, to set out on a mission: to improve patient safety. It is, she admits, going to be a challenge. Many different policies and approaches have been tried to date, but few with widespread success, and often with unintended consequences. Financial incentives are widely used, but recent evidence suggests that they have little effect. ‘There’s a danger that they tend to encourage effort substitution,’ explains Dixon-Woods. In other words, people concentrate on the areas that are being incentivised, but neglect other areas. ‘It’s not even necessarily conscious neglect. People have only a limited amount of time, so it’s inevitable they focus on areas that are measured and rewarded.’

In 2013, Dixon-Woods and colleagues published a study evaluating the use of surgical checklists introduced in hospitals to reduce complications and deaths during surgery. Her research found that that checklist may have little impact, and in some situations might even make things worse. ‘The checklists sometimes introduced new risks. Nurses would use the lists as box-ticking exercises – they would tick the box to say the patient had had their antibiotics when there were no antibiotics in the hospital, for example.’ They also reinforced the hierarchies– nurses had to try to get surgeons to do certain tasks, but the surgeons used the situation as an opportunity to display their power and refuse.

Dixon-Woods and her team spend time in hospitals to try to understand which systems are in place and how they are used. Not only does she find differences in approaches between hospitals, but also between units and even between shifts. ‘Standardisation and harmonisation are two of the most urgent issues we have to tackle. Imagine if you have to learn each new system wherever you go or even whenever a new senior doctor is on the ward. This introduces massive risk.’

Dixon-Woods compares the issue of patient safety to that of climate change, in the sense that it is a ‘problem of many hands’, with many actors, each making a contribution towards the outcome, and there is difficulty in identifying where the responsibility for solving the problem lies. ‘Many patient safety issues arise at the level of the system as a whole, but policies treat patient safety as an issue for each individual organisation.’

Nowhere is this more apparent than the issue of ‘alarm fatigue’, according to Dixon-Woods. Each bed in an intensive care unit typically generates 160 alarms per day, caused by machinery that is not integrated. ‘You have to assemble all the kit around an intensive care bed manually,’ she explains. ‘It doesn’t come built as one like an aircraft cockpit. This is not something a hospital can solve alone. It needs to be solved at the sector level.’

Dixon-Woods has turned to Professor Clarkson in Cambridge’s Engineering Design Centre to help. ‘Fundamentally, my work is about asking how we can make it better and what could possibly go wrong,’ explains Clarkson. ‘We need to look through the eyes of the healthcare providers to see the challenges and to understand where tools and techniques we use in engineering may be of value.’ There is a difficulty, he concedes: ‘There’s no formal language of design in healthcare. Do we understand what the need is? Do we understand what the requirements are? Can we think of a range of concepts we might use and then design a solution and test it before we put it in place? We seldom see this in healthcare, and that’s partly driven by culture and lack of training, but partly by lack of time.’ Dixon-Woods agrees that healthcare can learn much from engineers. ‘There has to be a way of getting our two sides talking,’ she says. ‘Only then will we be able to prevent tragedies like the death of Mary.’


7. What point is made about the death of a female patient called Mary?
A It was entirely preventable.
B Nobody was willing to accept the blame.
C Surgeons should have tried harder to save her life.
D It is the type of incident which is becoming increasingly common.
8. What is meant by the phrase ‘effort substitution’ in the second paragraph?
A Monetary resources are diverted unnecessarily.
B Time and energy is wasted on irrelevant matters.
C Staff focus their attention on a limited number of issues.
D People have to take on tasks which they are unfamiliar with.
9. By quoting Dixon-Woods in the second paragraph, the writer shows that the professor
A understands why healthcare employees have to make certain choices.
B doubts whether reward schemes are likely to put patients at risk.
C believes staff should be paid a bonus for achieving goals.
D feels the people in question have made poor choices.
10. What point is made about checklists in the third paragraph?
A Hospital staff sometimes forget to complete them.
B Nurses and surgeons are both reluctant to deal with them.
C They are an additional burden for over-worked nursing staff.
D The information recorded on them does not always reflect reality.
11. What problem is mentioned in the fourth paragraph?
A failure to act promptly
B outdated procedures
C poor communication
D lack of consistency
12. What point about patient safety is the writer making by quoting Dixon-Woods’ comparison with climate change?
A The problem will worsen if it isn’t dealt with soon.
B It isn’t clear who ought to be tackling the situation.
C It is hard to know what the best course of action is.
D Many people refuse to acknowledge there is a problem.
13. The writer quotes Dixon-Woods’ reference to intensive care beds in order to
A present an alternative viewpoint.
B illustrate a fundamental obstacle.
C show the drawbacks of seemingly simple solutions.
D give a detailed example of how to deal with an issue.
14. What difference between healthcare and engineering is mentioned in the final paragraph?
A the types of systems they use
B the way they exploit technology
C the nature of the difficulties they face
D the approach they take to deal with challenges



PART C. TEXT 2:
MIGRAINE – MORE THAN JUST A HEADACHE

When a news reporter in the US gave an unintelligible live TV commentary of an awards ceremony, she became an overnight internet sensation. As the paramedics attended, the worry was that she’d suffered a stroke live on air. Others wondered if she was drunk or on drugs. However, in interviews shortly after, she revealed, to general astonishment, that she’d simply been starting a migraine. The bizarre speech difficulties she experienced are an uncommon symptom of aura, the collective name for a range of neurological symptoms that may occur just before a migraine headache. Generally, aura is visual – for example blind spots which increase in size, or have a flashing, zig-zagging or sparkling margin, but they can include other odd disturbances such as pins and needles, memory changes and even partial paralysis.

Migraine is often thought of as an occasional severe headache, but surely symptoms such as these should tell us there’s more to it than meets the eye. In fact, many scientists now consider it a serious neurological disorder. One area of research into migraine aura has looked at the phenomenon known as Cortical Spreading Depression (CSD) – a storm of neural activity that passes in a wave across the brain’s surface. First seen in 1944 in the brain of a rabbit, it’s now known that CSD can be triggered when the normal flow of electric currents within and around brain cells is somehow reversed. Nouchine Hadjikhani and her team at Harvard Medical School managed to record an episode of CSD in a brain scanner during migraine aura (in a visual region that responds to flickering motion), having found a patient who had the rare ability to be able to predict when an aura would occur. This confirmed a long-suspected link between CSD and the aura that often precedes migraine pain. Hadjikhani admits, however, that other work she has done suggests that CSD may occur all over the brain, often unnoticed, and may even happen in healthy brains. If so, aura may be the result of a person’s brain being more sensitive to CSD than it should be.

Hadjikhani has also been looking at the structural and functional differences in the brains of migraine sufferers. She and her team found thickening of a region known as the somatosensory cortex, which maps our sense of touch in different parts of the body. They found the most significant changes in the region that relates to the head and face. ‘Because sufferers return to normal following an attack, migraine has always been considered an episodic problem,’ says Hadjikhani. ‘But we found that if you have successive strikes of pain in the face area, it actually increases cortical thickness.’

Work with children is also providing some startling insights. A study by migraine expert Peter Goadsby, who splits his time between King’s College London and the University of California, San Francisco, looked at the prevalence of migraine in mothers of babies with colic – the uncontrolled crying and fussiness often blamed on sensitive stomachs or reflux. He found that of 154 mothers whose babies were having a routine two-month check-up, the migraine sufferers were 2.6 times as likely to have a baby with colic. Goadsby believes it is possible that a baby with a tendency to migraine may not cope well with the barrage of sensory information they experience as their nervous system starts to mature, and the distress response could be what we call colic.

Linked to this idea, researchers are finding differences in the brain function of migraine sufferers, even between attacks. Marla Mickleborough, a vision specialist at the University of Saskatchewan in Saskatoon, Canada, found heightened sensitivity to visual stimuli in the supposedly ‘normal’ period between attacks. Usually, the brain comes to recognise something repeating over and over again as unimportant and stops noticing it, but in people with migraine, the response doesn’t diminish over time. ‘They seem to be attending to things they should be ignoring,’ she says.


Taken together this research is worrying and suggests that it’s time for doctors to treat the condition more aggressively, and to find out more about each individual’s triggers so as to stop attacks from happening. But there is a silver lining. The structural changes should not be likened to dementia, Alzheimer’s disease or ageing, where brain tissue is lost or damaged irreparably. In migraine, the brain is compensating. Even if there’s a genetic predisposition, research suggests it is the disease itself that is driving networks to an altered state. That would suggest that treatments that reduce the frequency or severity of migraine will probably be able to reverse some of the structural changes too. Treatments used to be all about reducing the immediate pain, but now it seems they might be able to achieve a great deal more.



15. Why does the writer tell the story of the news reporter?
A to explain the causes of migraine aura
B to address the fear surrounding migraine aura
C to illustrate the strange nature of migraine aura
D to clarify a misunderstanding about migraine aura
16. The research by Nouchine Hadjikhani into CSD
A has less relevance than many believe.
B did not result in a definitive conclusion.
C was complicated by technical difficulties.
D overturned years of accepted knowledge.
17. What does the word ‘This’ in the second paragraph refer to?
A the theory that connects CSD and aura
B the part of the brain where auras take place
C the simultaneous occurrence of CSD and aura
D the ability to predict when an aura would happen
18. The implication of Hadjikhani’s research into the somatosensory cortex is that
A migraine could cause a structural change.
B a lasting treatment for migraine is possible.
C some diagnoses of migraine may be wrong.
D having one migraine is likely to lead to more.
19. What does the writer find surprising about Goadsby’s research?
A the idea that migraine may not run in families
B the fact that migraine is evident in infanthood
C the link between childbirth and onset of migraine
D the suggestion that infant colic may be linked to migraine
20. According to Marla Mickleborough, what is unusual about the brain of migraine sufferers?
A It fails to filter out irrelevant details.
B It struggles to interpret visual input.
C It is slow to respond to sudden changes.
D It does not pick up on important information.
21. The writer uses the phrase ‘a silver lining’ in the final paragraph to emphasise
A the privileged position of some sufferers.
B a more positive aspect of the research.
C the way migraine affects older people.
D the value of publicising the research.
22. What does the writer suggest about the brain changes seen in migraine sufferers?
A Some of them may be beneficial.
B They are unlikely to be permanent.
C Some of them make treatment unnecessary.
D They should still be seen as a cause for concern.


How did it go? Please share your feedback in the comment section below:

VIEW ANSWER KEYSOET READINGOET SPEAKINGOET ROLE PLAYSOET LETTER WRITINGOET LISTENING

We hope this information has been valuable to you. If so, please consider a monetary donation to Lifestyle Training Centre via UPI. Your support is greatly appreciated.

Would you like to undergo training for OET, PTE, IELTS, Duolingo, Phonetics, or Spoken English with us? Kindly contact us now!

📱 Call/WhatsApp/Text: +91 9886926773

📧 Email: [email protected]

🗺️ Find Us on Google Map

Visit us in person by following the directions on Google Maps. We look forward to welcoming you to the Lifestyle Training Centre.

Follow Lifestyle Training Centre on social media:

Thank you very much!

OPIOID DEPENDENCE OET READING

TEXT A: Identifying opioid dependence
The International Classification of Disease, Tenth Edition [ICD-IO] is a coding system created by the World Health Organization (WHO) to catalogue and name diseases, conditions, signs and symptoms. The ICD-IO includes criteria to identify dependence. According to the ICD-IO, opioid dependence is defined by the presence of three or more of the following features at any one time in the preceding year:
• a strong desire or sense of compulsion to take opioids
• difficulties in controlling opioid use
• a physiological withdrawal state
• tolerance of opioids
• progressive neglect of alternative interests or pleasures because of opioid use
• persisting with opioid use despite clear evidence of overtly harmful consequences.
There are other definitions of opioid dependence or ‘use disorder’ (e.g., the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition, [DSM-5]), but the central features are the same. Loss of control over use, continuing use despite harm, craving, compulsive use, physical tolerance and dependence remain key in identifying problems.

TEXT B: WHY NOT JUST PRESCRIBE CODEINE OR ANOTHER OPIOID?
Now that analgesics containing codeine are no longer available OTC (over the counter), patients may request a prescription for codeine. It is important for GPs to explain that there is a lack of evidence demonstrating the long-term analgesic efficacy of codeine in treating chronic non-cancer pain. Long-term use of opioids has not been associated with sustained improvement in function or quality of life, and there are increasing concerns about the risk of harm.
GPs should explain that the risks associated with opioids include tolerance leading to dose escalation, overdose, falls, accidents and death. It should be emphasised that OTC codeine-containing analgesics were only intended for short-term use (one to three days) and that longer-term pain management requires a more detailed assessment of the patient’s medical condition as well as clinical management.
New trials have shown that for acute pain, nonopioid combinations can be as effective as combination analgesics containing opioids such as codeine and oxycodone. If pain isn’t managed with nonopioid medications then consider referring the patient to a pain specialist or pain clinic. Patient resources for pain management are freely available online to all clinicians at websites such as:
• Pain Management Network in NSW – www.aci.health.nsw.gov.au/networks/pain-management
• Australian and New Zealand College of Anaesthetists Faculty of Pain Medicine -www. m.anzca.edu.au

TEXT C

MedicationRegulatory requirementsRequires off-label useStrength of evidenceAdvantagesDisadvantagesNotes on dosage
Buprenorphine- naloxone (sublingual)Permit before treatment; patient registered as drug dependent in some jurisdictionsIndicated for opioid dependence (off-label for pain)Multiple well- conducted RCTs demonstrate efficacy and safetyA large evidence base (e.g. Cochrane reviews) shows it is the most effective option for opioid taper16More restrictive than other options (regulatory requirements and supervised dosing) Indicated only for opioid dependence, not for chronic pain in the absence of opioid dependenceSee sample withdrawal regimen (Box 8) or refer to state and national guidelines
Tramadol (oral)Only those that apply to S4 medicationsYes (indicated for pain not opioid dependence)Low – a small number of RCTs demonstrate efficacy and safetyA small number of studies examined a one-week tramadol taper, with outcomes comparable with those of other opioid tapers and superior to clonidineMay produce serotonergic side effects, known drug interactions, use with caution in the elderly Use is off label Risk of seizures, even at usual doses Variable metabolism through CYP P450, similar to codeine100 to 300 mg sustained- release formulation twice a day for one-week Supervised dosing and daily dispensing may be indicated
Buprenorphine (transdermal patch)Permit before treatment if patient is drug dependentYes (indicated for pain not opioid dependence)None – no RCTs or published casesGood safety profileDose likely to be insufficient for patients with clear evidence of opioid dependence5, 10 or 20 mcg weekly patches are available A single patch should be sufficient for taper from oral codeine
Symptomatic medicationsOnly those relating to S4/OTC medicationsNo (if use is consistent with product indication)Moderate to high – well- conducted RCTs demonstrate efficacy; however, poorer outcomes than buprenorphine or tramadol15Fewer prescribing restrictions Relatively safe in outpatient settingShown to be less effective than buprenorphine and tramadol Multiple medications can be confusing Caution using sedative medications in outpatient setting Clonidine can cause severe hypotensionSee Table 1


TEXT D Preparation for tapering
As soon as a valid indication for tapering of opioid analgesics is established, it is important to have a
conversation with the patient to explain the process and develop a treatment agreement. This agreement
could include:
• time frame for the agreement
• objectives of the taper
• frequency of dose reduction
• requirement for obtaining the prescriptions from a designated clinician
• scheduled appointments for regular review
• anticipated effects of the taper
• consent for urine drug screening
• possible consequences of failure to comply.
Before starting tapering, it needs to be clearly emphasised to the patient that reducing the dose of opioid
analgesia will not necessarily equate to increased pain and that it will, in effect, lead to improved mood
and functioning as well as a reduction in pain intensity. The prescriber should establish a therapeutic
alliance with the patient and develop a shared and specific goal.


PART A -For 1-7, decide which text (A, B, C or D) the information comes from.
1. What GPs should say to patients requesting codeine?
2. basic indications of an opioid problem?
3. different medications used for weaning patients off opioids?
4. decisions to make before beginning treatment of dependence?
5. defining features of a use disorder?
6. the development of a common goal for both prescriber and patient?
7. sources of further information on pain management?


Questions 8-14. Answer each of the questions, 8-14, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts.
8. What will reduced doses of opioids lead to a reduction of?
9. What is the most effective medication for tapering opioid dependence?
10. How long should over the counter codeine analgesics be used for?
11. When should doctors consider referring a patient to a pain expert or clinic?
12. What might a patient give permission to before starting treatment?
13. What might be increasingly neglected as a result of opioid use?
14. How many Buprenorphine patches are needed to taper from codeine tablets?



Questions 15-20
 The use of Buprenorphine-naxolone requires a (15)…….. before treatment.
 The use of symptomatic medications for the treatment of opioid dependence has been found to have (16)…….. than tramadol.
 Different definitions of opioid dependence share the same (17)………
 Once it is decided that opioid taper is a suitable treatment the doctor and patient should create a (18)………
 Recent research indicates that (19)…….. can work as well as combination analgesics including codeine and oxycodone.
 The ICD-10 defines a patient as dependent if they have (20)…….. key symptoms simultaneously.


PART B
1. The purpose of the memo about IV solution bags is to remind health practitioners
A. of the procedures to follow when using them.
B. of the hazards associated with faulty ones.
C. why they shouldn’t be reused.
Memo to staff – Intravenous solution bags: IV fluids are administered via a plastic IV solution bag which collapses on itself as it empties. When a bag is disconnected by removing the giving set spike, air can enter the bag. If it is then reconnected to an IV-line, air can potentially enter the patient’s vein and cause an air embolism. For this reason, partially used IV bags must never be re-spiked. All IV bags are designed for single use only – for use in one patient and on one occasion only. All registered large volume injections, including IV bags, are required to have this warning (or words to the same effect) clearly displayed on the labelling. In addition to the potential risk of introducing an air embolus, re-spiking can also result in contamination of the fluid, which may lead to infection and bacteraemia.

2. What do we learn about the use of TENS machines?
a. Evidence for their efficacy is unconfirmed.
b. They are recommended in certain circumstances.
c. More research is needed on their possible side effects
Update on TENS machines: The Association of Chartered Physiotherapists in Women’s Health has an expert panel which could not find any reports suggesting that negative effects are produced when TENS has been used during pregnancy. However, in clinical practice, TENS is not the first treatment of choice for women presenting with musculoskeletal pain during pregnancy. The initial treatment should be aimed at correcting any joint or muscle dysfunction, and a rehabilitation programme should be devised. However, if pain remains a significant factor, then TENS is preferable to the use of strong medication that could cross the placental barrier and affect the foetus. No negative effects have been reported following the use of this modality during any of the stages of pregnancy. Therefore, TENS is preferable for the relief of pain.

3. If surgical instruments have been used on a patient suspected of having prion disease, they
A. must be routinely destroyed as they cannot be reused.
B. may be used on other patients provided the condition has been ruled out.
C. should be decontaminated in a particular way before use with other patients.
Guidelines: Invasive clinical procedures in patients with suspected prion disease: It is essential that patients suspected of suffering from prion disease are identified prior to any surgical procedure. Failure to do so may result in exposure of individuals on whom any surgical equipment is subsequently used. Prions are inherently resistant to commonly used disinfectants and methods of sterilisation. This means that there is a possibility of transmission of prion disease to other patients, even after apparently effective methods of decontamination or sterilisation have been used. For this reason, it may be necessary to destroy instruments after use on such a patient, or to quarantine the instrument until the diagnosis is either confirmed, or an alternative diagnosis is established. In any case, the instruments can be used for the same patient on another occasion if necessary.



4. The email suggests that POCT devices
A. should only be used in certain locations.
B. must be checked regularly by trained staff.
C. can produce results that may be misinterpreted.
To: All Staff. Subject: Management of Point of Care Testing (POCT) Devices: Due to several recent incidents associated with POCT devices, staff are requested to read the following advice from the manufacturer of the devices. The risks associated with the use of POCT devices arise from Management of Point of Care Testing Devices Version 4 January 2014, the inherent characteristics of the devices themselves and from the interpretation of the results they provide. They can be prone to user errors arising from unfamiliarity with equipment more usually found in the laboratory. User training and competence is therefore crucial.

5. It’s permissible to locate a baby’s identification band somewhere other than the ankles when
a. the baby is being moved due to an emergency.
b. the bands may interfere with treatment.
c. the baby is in an incubator.
Identification bands for babies: The identification bands should be located on the baby’s ankles with correct identification details unless the baby is extremely premature and/or immediate vascular access is required.
If for any reason the bands need to be removed, they should be relocated to the wrists or if this is not possible, fixed visibly to the inside of the incubator. Any ill-fitting or missing labels should be replaced at first check. Identity bands must be applied to the baby’s ankles at the earliest opportunity as condition allows and definitely in the event of fire evacuation or transportation.

6. What is the memo doing?
a. providing an update on the success of new guidelines
b. reminding staff of the need to follow new guidelines
c. announcing the introduction of new guidelines
Memo: Administration of antibiotics: After a thorough analysis and review, our peri-operative services, in conjunction with the Departments of Surgery and Anaesthesia, decided to change the protocols for the administration of pre-operative antibiotics and established a series of best practice guidelines. This has resulted in a significant improvement in the number of patients receiving antibiotics within the recommended 60 minutes of their incision. A preliminary review of the total hip and knee replacements performed in May indicates that 88.9% of patients received their antibiotics on time.



PART C. TEXT 1: Detecting Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
Carbon Monoxide (CO) poisoning is the single most common source of poisoning injury treated in US hospital emergency departments. While its presentation is not uncommon, the diverse symptoms that manifest themselves do not lead most clinicians to consider carboxyhemoglobinemia when attempting a diagnosis. The symptoms can be mistaken for those of many other illnesses including food poisoning, influenza, migraine headache, or substance abuse.
What’s more, in an attempt to find the causative agent for the symptoms, many unnecessary, and sometimes resource-intensive, diagnostics may be ordered, to no avail. For example, because the symptoms of CO poisoning may mimic an intracranial bleed, the time needed to obtain a negative result may hold up a proper diagnosis as well as needlessly increasing healthcare costs. Of even greater concern, however, is that during such delays patients may find that their symptoms abate and their health improves as the hidden culprit, CO, is flushed from the blood during the normal ventilation patterns.
Indeed, multiple reports have shown patients being discharged and returned to the very environment where exposure to CO took place. Take the case of a 67-year-old man who sought medical help after three days of lightheadedness, vertigo, stabbing chest pain, cough, chills and headache. He was admitted, evaluated and discharged with a diagnosis of viral syndrome. Ten days later, he returned to the Emergency Department with vertigo, palpitations and nausea but was sent home for outpatient follow-up. Four days later, he presented again with diarrhea and severe chest pain, collapsing to the floor. This time, he was admitted to the Coronary Care Unit with acute myocardial infarction. Among the results of a routine arterial blood gas analysis there, it was found that his carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) levels were 15.6%. A COHb level then obtained on his wife was 18.1%. A rusted furnace was found to be the source.
There are two main types of CO poisoning: acute, which is caused by brief exposure to a high level of carbon monoxide, and chronic or subacute, which results from long exposure to a low level of CO. Patients with acute CO poisoning are more likely to present with more serious symptoms, such as cardiopulmonary problems, confusion, syncope, coma, and seizure. Chronic poisoning is generally associated with the less severe symptoms. Low-level exposure can exacerbate angina and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and patients with coronary artery disease are at risk for ischemia and myocardial infarction even at low levels of CO.
Patients that present with low COHb levels correlate well with mild symptoms of CO poisoning, as do cases that register levels of 50-70%, which are generally fatal. However, intermediate levels show little correlation with symptoms or with prognosis. One thing that is certain about COHb levels is that smokers present with higher levels than do non-smokers. The COHb level in non-smokers is approximately one to two percent. In patients who smoke, a baseline level of nearly five percent is considered normal, although it can be as high as 13 percent. Although COHb concentrations between 11 percent and 30 percent can produce symptoms, it is important to consider the patient’s smoking status.
Regardless of the method of detection used in emergency department care, several other variables make assessing the severity of the CO poisoning difficult. The length of time since CO exposure is one such factor. The half-life of CO is four to six hours when the patient is breathing room air, and 40-60 minutes when the patient is breathing 100 percent oxygen. If a patient is given oxygen during their transport to the emergency department, it will be difficult to know when the COHb level hit its highest point. In addition, COHb levels may not fully correlate with the clinical condition of CO-poisoned patients because the COHb level in the blood is not an absolute index of compromised oxygen delivery at the tissue level. Furthermore, levels may not match up to specific signs and symptoms: patients with moderate levels will not necessarily appear sicker than patients with lower levels.
In hospitals, the most common means of measuring CO exposure has traditionally been through the use of a laboratory CO-Oximeter. A blood sample, under a physician order, is drawn from either venous or arterial vessel and injected into the device. Using a method called spectrophotometric blood gas analysis, this then measures the invasive blood sample. Because the CO-Oximeter can only yield a single, discrete reading for each aliquot of blood sampled, the reported value is a non-continuous snapshot of the patient’s condition at the particular moment that the sample was collected. It does, however, represent a stepin the right direction. One study found that in hospitals lacking such a device, the average time it took to receive results of a blood sample sent to another facility was over fifteen hours, compared to a ten-minute turnaround in CO- Oximeter equipped hospitals.


1. In the first paragraph, what reason for the misdiagnosis of CO poisoning is highlighted?
A. the limited experience physicians have of it
B. the wide variety of symptoms associated with it
C. the relative infrequency with which it is presented
D. the way it is concealed by pre-existing conditions
2. In the second paragraph, the writer stresses the danger of delays in diagnosis leading to
A. the inefficient use of scarce resources.
B. certain symptoms being misinterpreted.
C. a deterioration in the patient’s condition.
D. the evidence of poisoning disappearing.
3. The 67-year-old man’s CO poisoning was only successfully diagnosed as a result of
A. attending an outpatient clinic.
B. his wife being similarly affected.
C. undergoing tests as an inpatient.
D. his suggesting the probable cause.
4. In the fourth paragraph, confusion is given as a symptom of
A. short-term exposure to high levels of CO.
B. repeated exposure to varying levels of CO.
C. a relatively low overall level of exposure to CO.
D. sustained exposure to CO over an extended period.
5. In the fifth paragraph, what point is made about COHb levels?
A. They fail to detect CO poisoning in habitual smokers.
B. They are a generally reliable indicator of CO poisoning.
C. They correlate very well with extreme levels of CO poisoning.
D. They are most useful in determining intermediate levels of CO poisoning.
6. The phrase ‘one such factor’ in the sixth paragraph refers to
A. a type of care.
B. a cause of difficulty.
C. a method of detection.
D. a way of making an assessment.
7. One result of administering oxygen to CO poisoned patients in transit is that
A. it becomes harder to ascertain when the COHb level peaked.
B. it may lead to changes in the type of symptoms observed.
C. it could artificially inflate the COHb level in the short term.
D. it affects the ability to assess the effects at tissue level.
8. What reservation about the CO-Oximeter does the writer express?
A. It does not always give an immediate result.
B. Its use needs to be approved by a physician.
C. It requires a skilled analyst to interpret the readings.
D. It does not show variations in the patient’s condition


PART C. Text 2: ADHD


The American Psychiatric Association (APA) recognised Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) as a childhood disorder in the 1960s, but it wasn’t until 1978 that the condition was formally recognised as afflicting adults. In recent years, the USA has seen a 40% rise in diagnoses of ADHD in children. It could be that the disorder is becoming more prevalent, or, as seems more plausible, doctors are making the diagnosis more frequently. The issue is complicated by the lack of any recognised neurological markers for ADHD. The APA relies instead on a set of behavioural patterns for diagnosis. It specifi es that patients under 17 must display at least six symptoms of inattention and/or hyperactivity; adults need only display five.

ADHD can be a controversial condition. Dr Russell Barkley, Professor of Psychiatry at the University of Massachusetts insists; ‘the science is overwhelming: it’s a real disorder, which can be managed, in many cases, by using stimulant medication in combination with other treatments’. Dr Richard Saul, a behavioural neurologist with fi ve decades of experience, disagrees; ‘Many of us have difficulty with organization or details, a tendency to lose things, or to be forgetful or distracted. Under such subjective criteria, the entire population could potentially qualify. Although some patients might need stimulants to function well in daily life, the lumping together of many vague and subjective symptoms could be causing a national phenomenon of misdiagnosis and over-prescription of stimulants.’

A recent study found children in foster care three times more likely than others to be diagnosed with ADHD. Researchers also found that children with ADHD in foster care were more likely to have another disorder, such as depression or anxiety. This finding certainly reveals the need for medical and behavioural services for these children, but it could also prove the non-specific nature of the symptoms of ADHD: anxiety and depression, or an altered state, can easily be mistaken for manifestations of ADHD.

ADHD, the thinking goes, begins in childhood. In fact, in order to be diagnosed with it as an adult, a patient must demonstrate that they had traits of the condition in childhood. However, studies from the UK and Brazil, published in JAMA Psychiatry, are fuelling questions about the origins and trajectory of ADHD, suggesting not only that it can begin in adulthood, but that there may be two distinct syndromes: adult-onset ADHD and childhood ADHD. They echo earlier research from New Zealand. However, an editorial by Dr Stephen Faraone in JAMA Psychiatry highlights potential flaws in the findings. Among them, underestimating the persistence of ADHD into adulthood and overestimating the prevalence of adult-onset ADHD. In Dr Faraone’s words, ‘the researchers found a group of people who had sub-threshold ADHD in their youth. There may have been signs that things weren’t right, but not enough to go to a doctor. Perhaps these were smart kids with particularly supportive parents or teachers who helped them cope with attention problems. Such intellectual and social scaffolding would help in early life, but when the scaffolding is removed, full ADHD could develop’.

Until this century, adult ADHD was a seldom-diagnosed disorder. Nowadays however, it’s common in mainstream medicine in the USA, a paradigm shift apparently driven by two factors: reworked – many say less stringent – diagnostic criteria, introduced by the APA in 2013, and marketing by manufacturers of ADHD medications. Some have suggested that this new, broader defi nition of ADHD was fuelled, at least in part, to broaden the market for medication. In many instances, the evidence proffered to expand the defi nitions came from studies funded in whole or part by manufacturers. And as the criteria for the condition loosened, reports emerged about clinicians involved in diagnosing ADHD receiving money from drug-makers.

This brings us to the issue of the addictive nature of ADHD medication. As Dr Saul asserts, ‘addiction to stimulant medication isn’t rare; it’s common. Just observe the many patients periodically seeking an increased dosage as their powers of concentration diminish. This is because the body stops producing the appropriate levels of neurotransmitters that ADHD drugs replace − a trademark of addictive substances.’ Much has been written about the staggering increase in opioid overdoses and abuse of prescription painkillers in the USA, but the abuse of drugs used to treat ADHD is no less a threat. While opioids are more lethal than prescription stimulants, there are parallels between the opioid epidemic and the increase in problems tied to stimulants. In the former, users switch from prescription narcotics to heroin and illicit fentanyl. With ADHD drugs, patients are switching from legally prescribed stimulants to illicit ones such as methamphetamine and cocaine. The medication is particularly prone to abuse because people feel it improves their lives. These drugs are antidepressants, aid weight-loss and improve confidence, and can be abused by students seeking to improve their focus or academic performance. So, more work needs to be done before we can settle the questions surrounding the diagnosis and treatment of ADHD.



Text 2: Questions 9-16

9. In the first paragraph, the writer questions whether
A. adult ADHD should have been recognised as a disorder at an earlier date.
B. ADHD should be diagnosed in the same way for children and adults.
C. ADHD can actually be indicated by neurological markers.
D. cases of ADHD have genuinely increased in the USA.
10. What does Dr Saul object to?
A. the suggestion that people need stimulants to cope with everyday life
B. the implication that everyone has some symptoms of ADHD
C. the grouping of imprecise symptoms into a mental disorder
D. the treatment for ADHD suggested by Dr Barkley
11. The writer regards the study of children in foster care as significant because it
A. highlights the difficulty of distinguishing ADHD from other conditions.
B. focuses on children known to have complex mental disorders.
C. suggests a link between ADHD and a child’s upbringing.
D. draws attention to the poor care given to such children.
12. In the fourth paragraph, the word ‘They’ refers to
A. syndromes.
B. questions.
C. studies.
D. origins.
13. Dr Faraone suggests that the group of patients diagnosed with adult-onset ADHD
A. had teachers or parents who recognised the symptoms of ADHD.
B. should have consulted a doctor at a younger age.
C. had mild undiagnosed ADHD in childhood.
D. were specially chosen by the researchers.
14. In the fifth paragraph, it is suggested that drug companies have
A. been overly aggressive in their marketing of ADHD medication.
B. influenced research that led to the reworking of ADHD diagnostic criteria.
C. attempted to change the rules about incentives for doctors who diagnose ADHD.
D. encouraged the APA to rush through changes to the criteria for diagnosing ADHD.
15. In the final paragraph, the word ‘trademark’ refers to
A. a physiological reaction.
B. a substitute medication.
C. a need for research.
D. a common request.
16. In the final paragraph, what does the writer imply about addiction to ADHD medication?
A. It is unlikely to turn into a problem on the scale of that caused by opioid abuse.
B. The effects are more marked in certain sectors of the population.
C. Insufficient attention seems to have been paid to it.
D. The reasons for it are not yet fully understood.

How did it go? Please share your feedback in the comment section below:

VIEW ANSWER KEYSOET READINGOET SPEAKINGOET ROLE PLAYSOET LETTER WRITINGOET LISTENING

We hope this information has been valuable to you. If so, please consider a monetary donation to Lifestyle Training Centre via UPI. Your support is greatly appreciated.

Would you like to undergo training for OET, PTE, IELTS, Duolingo, Phonetics, or Spoken English with us? Kindly contact us now!

📱 Call/WhatsApp/Text: +91 9886926773

📧 Email: [email protected]

🗺️ Find Us on Google Map

Visit us in person by following the directions on Google Maps. We look forward to welcoming you to the Lifestyle Training Centre.

Follow Lifestyle Training Centre on social media:

Thank you very much!

Can I book OET using a debit card in India?

The short answer is Yes.

If you debit card is “International transaction” enabled, you can book your OET exam using it.

If not, you do need a Credit Card (International) to book your test.

Acceptable Cards: Visa, MasterCard

This is the fastest and easiest way to enrol in a course, as once payment is made, you will have immediate access to your course.

IF you are Australia and do not have a credit or debit card, Online Bank Transfer is a good option. This method of payment transfers money from your bank account directly to OET Online, but can only be accessed online from your banking website. After payment is made, please send a remittance slip confirming payment and you will be enrolled in your requested course.

If you are in India or Sri Lanka and can access a Commonwealth Bank, you can use this method of transfer.

For more information, please click here

How much OET Test Costs

The OET Test, consisting of four sub-tests (Listening, Reading, Writing, and Speaking), is priced at AU$587 (or US$455 for OET on Computer at a venue and OET@Home in the US).

For those opting to book single sub-tests, reduced costs are available for OET on Paper at most venues globally (excluding the USA). Here are the prices, including the AU$7 online booking fee:

  • 1 sub-test: AU$315
  • 2 sub-tests: AU$415
  • 3 sub-tests: AU$515

Please note that this option is only accessible if you’ve previously taken the full OET Test. Additionally, before booking individual sub-tests, ensure that the organization you intend to share your results with accepts scores from individual sub-tests or less than a full test.

If you require further information or assistance, don’t hesitate to reach out OET on email: [email protected]

Contact OET via phone:

AUS +61 3 8658 3963

UK +44 1202 037333

USA +1 855 585 0125


When will I get my OET Test results?

Receiving your OET Test results is an eagerly awaited moment. Here’s a guideline on when you can anticipate your results to be published in your OET account:

  • OET on Computer/OET@Home: Results typically become available within 10 days of the test date.
  • OET on Paper at a Venue: Results are usually accessible 17 days after the test date.

Please note that these timeframes may vary due to additional checks and public holidays.

You’ll receive an email notification informing you of when your results are published. You can login to you OET profile and check the results always.

Can I use any connector/ conjunctions (but, so, and, also) in OET writing?


Yes, you can I use any connector/ conjunctions (but, so, and, also) in OET writing. However, OET does not recommend beginning a new sentence with some simple connectors, such as:

· also, so, and, but

These are fine to include in the middle of the sentence, but choose a more formal alternative for the start of your sentence, such as:

· Additionally, Therefore, However

What connectors/ Conjunctions should I avoid?

Remember, writing a healthcare care letter to another healthcare professional is not the same as writing an essay task or academic report. Some candidates make the mistake of using the same connectors as they did for academic tasks at school or university. These may be less appropriate in the context of OET.

Some connectors are less suitable for healthcare letter writing. These include:

· Academic connectors: furthermore, moreover

· Informal connectors: besides, meanwhile, apart from that, later on

 . Outdated connectors:  hence, thus, thereafter 

How to score maximum for OET speaking?

Your performance on each of the two Speaking role-plays is scored against nine criteria and receives a band score for each criterion. The nine criteria are separated into two different segments: Linguistic and Clinical Communicative.

1. Linguistic Criteria:

1. Intelligibility: The impact of your pronunciation, intonation and accent on how clearly your listener can hear and understand what you’re saying

2. Fluency: The impact of the speed and smoothness of your speech on your listener’s understanding

3. Appropriateness of Language: The impact of your language, tone and professionalism on your listener’s understanding and comfort

4. Resources of Grammar and Expression: The impact of your level of grammatical accuracy and vocabulary choices on your listener’s understanding.

2. Clinical Communication Criteria:

1. Relationship-building: The impact of your choice of opening to the conversation and demonstration of empathy and respect on your listener’s comfort

2. Understanding and incorporating the patient’s perspective: The impact of how fully you involve the patient in the conversation on your listener’s understanding and comfort

3. Providing structure: The impact of how you organise the information you provide and introduce new topics for discussion on your listener’s understanding

4. Information-gathering: The impact of the type of questions you ask and how you listen to the responses on your listener’s understanding

5. Information-giving: The impact of how you provide information and check this information is being understood on your listener’s comfort and understanding.

To maximise your score in each criterion, practice regularly and familiarise yourself with the format of the Speaking sub-test.

Record yourself doing the role play, (both the sides simultaneously), and play it back. See which criterion is missing. Improve it. Rest assured, you can score a grate grade if you follow this strategy.

How does role play work?

  • Structure: The OET Speaking test comprises two role plays, each lasting approximately five minutes. Before the role plays, there’s a short warm-up conversation where the interlocutor checks your identity and profession. This conversation isn’t assessed. (don’t by heart them)
  • Preparation Time: You’re given three minutes to prepare for each role play. During this time, you’ll receive information on a card outlining the situation and your tasks. You can take notes on this card if needed.
  • Role Play Content: The scenarios are typical workplace situations relevant to healthcare professionals. If you have any questions about the role play content or procedures, feel free to ask during the preparation time.
  • Assessment: The entire Speaking sub-test is recorded, and your performance is independently assessed by at least two trained OET Assessors. They focus on how well you respond to the specific tasks presented and apply targeted assessment criteria tailored to the demands of communication in healthcare settings.
  • In the OET Speaking test, your interlocutor plays no role in assessing or influencing your test results. Their primary function is to facilitate the smooth conduct of the test. They’ll check your identity and profession, engage in a short warm-up conversation (which isn’t assessed), and introduce the role plays. During the test, your interlocutor follows a predetermined script to ensure consistency across candidates. However, they have no involvement in the assessment process. Your performance is solely evaluated by trained OET Assessors based on recorded interactions. This separation ensures fairness and impartiality in the assessment process

Can I take notes during OET role play?

Yes, you may write notes on the card if you wish. However, at Lifestyle Training Centre, we do not recommend writing anything during the preparation time as it could be a waste of valuable time. Instead, thoroughly read and understand the role play. Take your time and read slowly without panicking. Three minutes are more than sufficient.

If you have any doubts regarding the role play or specific vocabulary, feel free to ask the interlocutor, as they are obligated to answer any questions during the initial three minutes of preparation.