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Sarah Keating OET letter answer

Model answer by Lifestyle Training Centre

Ms. Jan Piper,
District Nurse,
Scarborough Beach City Council,
the Esplanade Scarborough Beach 6019



5 October 2010

Dear Ms Piper,
Re: Sarah Keating, aged 20 years.

Ms Keating requires follow up care and management, following her discharge today. She underwent treatment for infection of her right forearm skin graft.

During hospitalisation, Ms Keating was provided daily dressing on the affected lesion on her forearm. However, the lesion does not require dressing anymore. Additionally, she was administered Ampicillin intravenously. Due to considerations related to her mental health, our psychiatrist provided a consultation.



Considering the information provided, kindly proceed with the care for Ms. Keating. Please ensure her compliance with medication, including Ampicillin, 250 mg, four times a day, with the medication scheduled to be concluded on October 31, 2010. Kindly monitor both her donor site on the thigh and the graft site for any signs of infection or interference. The hospital has organized appointments for Ms. Keating with her psychologist twice every week. Should you have any additional questions or concerns, please feel free to contact me.

Yours sincerely,
Registered nurse.

View the writing task

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Jonathan OET listening test

Watch on Youtube, Jonathan OET listening test.

View answer keys for Mr Jonathan OET listening test.

See listening transcript

0:00extract one questions 1 to 12 for questions 1 to 12 complete the

0:08notes with a word or a short phrase you now have 30 seconds to look at the

0:28notes

0:48good morning doctor good morning Mr Jonathan tell me about your problem I am

0:54having severe and recurrent jaw pain doctor there’s also numbness tingling

0:59along the jaw jaw teeth and tongue how long have you had these problems for the past 6 months I even

1:07consulted a dentist but the dental evaluations are normal I was also diagnosed with a throat infection last

1:13week and I was prescribed avalox which I’ve almost completed I am taking cough drops and trying to increase fluids oh I

1:22see do you drink or smoke no doctor but I used to chew tobacco for about 30

1:28years but I’ve recently stopped okay moreover I’ve also lost the

1:34sensation of taste the numbness is on the left lateral tongue and jaw that extends from the angle of the jaw to my

1:41lip doctor recently I’ve gained about 20 pounds of weight and that maybe due to

1:46decreased activity do you get headaches yes doctor about twice in a month do you

1:53experience any fever or chills no doctor do you have any tooth pain especially

1:59especially while biting no doctor have you had any jaw popping no doctor any

2:06spasm of the jaw that is trismus no doctor I’ve stopped chewing

2:12tobacco and I’m using nicar gum now doctor oh okay what’s your age now 50

2:19years have you ever had any surgery yes pertinent for hernia repair surgery what

2:26medications are you taking at the moment Tylenol and I’m on n gum are you

2:31allergic to any medicine yes I’m allergic to coding I used to feel dizzy or laded when I took

2:38cing H your blood pressure is 138 over

2:4382 pulse 64 normal temperature

2:4898.3 and your weight is 191 lbs your oral cavity is normal with good moisture

2:55you have a slightly decreased sensation to your left jaw that extends to the left lateral tongue and left intcal

3:03mucosa the fiberoptic naseros scapy reveals a moderately deviated nasal

3:10septum to the left large inferior terminates you have developed persistent

3:17parasthesia of the left manual teeth and tongue possibly neoplasm within the mandible you have also developed hypog

3:24Gia with loss of taste in dry mouth syndrome called xerostomia I would

3:30suggest you have a CT of your head including sinuses and mandible so that I

3:36can evaluate and make sure you have not develop neoplasm take plenty of fluids and come and see me again when you get

3:42your diagnos

3:50reports extract two questions 13 to 24 for questions 13 to 24 complete the

3:58notes with a word or a short phrase you may have 30 seconds to look at the

4:28notes

4:34hello doctor good morning good morning may I find out what the problem is I’ve

4:40been experiencing the symptoms of heart failure for the past year doctor although it appears okay in general I

4:46feel a lot of stress and fatigue I’ve also noticed shortness of breath with exertion I am getting attacks of severe

4:53shortness of breath and coughing that usually occurs while I’m sleeping I have developed edema and had a mild leg

4:59swelling a while ago do you have severe chest pain called angina palpitations or

5:04syncope no doctor but I feel some irregularity in my pulse over the past

5:0910 months these symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past year I’ve gained about 20 kilograms in weight

5:15doctor what’s your age 63 doctor have you had any previous illnesses I had W

5:22inal Heria surgery 7 years ago I had trauma to my right thumb do you have

5:28diabetes metis a heart murma no doctor do you smoke or drink I don’t smoke but

5:34I drink tell me about your family history any endless my mother’s alive at

5:4092 my father died at 76 of a heart attack are you taking any

5:46medications yes doctor aspirin 81 milligrams daily and choria epoxide and

5:52clidinium combination pill at 5 Mig or 2 and2 Mig one tablet daily for stress Are

5:59you a allergic to any medicines no doctor okay well according to my comprehensive cardiovascular examination

6:06your blood pressure is 120 over 70 in each arm seated your pulse is 80 beats

6:13per minute and regular your breathing is two times per minute and that is

6:18unlabored lungs are clear to oscilation and percussion the first and second

6:23heart sounds are normal you have a fourth heart sound and a soft systolic

6:28murmur the precordial impulse is enlarged your electrocardiogram shows

6:33sinus rhythm with left ventricle hypertrophy your Peak oxygen consumption

6:39was 19.7 milliliters per kilogram of body mass per minute which is consistent

6:44with mild cardiopulmonary disease laboratory data shows your thyroid stimulating hormone

6:511.33 your glucose is 97 and creatine 0.9

6:57potassium is 4.3 I reviewed your echocardiogram thoroughly that shows a

7:03dilated cardiomyopathy with ejection fraction of 15% your poststress ejection

7:09fraction is 33% and left ventricular cavity appears enlarged this appears to

7:15be a newly diagnosed dilated cardiomyopathy of Uncertain ideology and

7:21dyslipidemia I’m going to prescribe Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor

7:26linil 2.5 mg daily and a bait blocker covered a low

7:323.125 mg twice daily in addition you could benefit from a loop diuretic

7:38boside 20 mgram daily I don’t think you need a defibrillator right now and after

7:453 months of medication I want you to go on an echocardiogram if your left ventricular function has not improved

7:52then you would benefit from a prophylactic use of an implantable cardioverter defibrillator so continue

7:59continue with these medications and meet me after a period of 3 months thank you

8:12doctor that is the end of part A now look at Part B Part B in this part of the text you

8:21will hear six different extracts in each extract you will hear people talking in

8:27different healthc care settings for questions 25 to 30 choose the answer a b

8:35or c which fits best according to what you hear you’ll have time to read each

8:41question before you listen complete your answers as you listen now look at

8:47question 25 Now read the

8:58question

9:06hello doctor can you please explain azotemia to me azotemia is a kind of

9:12nephrotoxicity that occurs when there’s nitrogen in our blood ureia occurs when there’s urine in your blood when excess

9:19nitrogen becomes toxic to our system and results in ureia or uremic syndrome if

9:25untreated azotemia can lead to acute renal failure when fluid isn’t flowing

9:31enough through the kidneys prerenal azotemia occurs creating high levels of

9:36UA and serum creatine concentration this is the most common type of azotemia and

9:43can be reversed usually intrinsic azotemia is caused due to sepsis

9:49infection or disease acute tubular necrosis is the most common type of

9:55intrinsic azotemia postrenal azotemia is is caused by an obstruction in the urinary tract

10:02postrenal azotemia can also occur with pre-renal

10:13azotemia question 26 Now read the

10:28question

10:40hello doctor what is a billy Rubin blood level as a result of breakdown of red

10:46blood cells Billy Rubin is released into the blood Billy Rubin is used by the liver to make bile generally a small

10:53amount of Billy Rubin is present in the blood the increased level of Billy Rubin in blood could be symptom of a liver or

11:00blood problem a common cause of increased Billy Rubin is Gilbert Syndrome a deficiency in an enzyme as

11:08the Billy Rubin levels in the blood get higher the white part of our eyes called scare may turn yellow also our skin may

11:17appear yellowish this is called ioris or

11:27jaundice question 27 Now read the

11:49question hello doctor who really has celiac disease and who doesn’t well

11:54according to findings about 40% of people worldwide may have a a genetic susceptibility to develop celiac disease

12:02where they react to gluten in their diet however what I feel is about 1% develop

12:09celiac disease those people do very well on a gluten-free diet avoid wheat oats

12:15and Rye however gluten is very tough to digest therefore it’s very gassy so I

12:21think people who buy gluten-free foods are really avoiding gassiness but I

12:26think most people are not really bothered by gluten a simple blood test can help identify those with celiac

12:33disease but simply avoiding foods to get rid of celiac disease is well worth

12:45continuing question 28 Now read the

12:57question

13:07Precision medicine is an emerging strategy for disease treatment based on the individual variability in genes

13:14environment and the lifestyle of each patient allowing healthc Care Professionals and researchers to deliver

13:20precise treatment strategies for specific diseases in specific types of patients it isn’t contrary to a one-

13:27siiz fits-all approach in which general treatment strategies are followed with less consideration for the differences

13:34between patients although the term Precision medicine may be relatively new the concept has been a part of health

13:40care for many years for instance a person who requires a blood transfusion is not given blood from a randomly

13:47selected donor instead the donor’s blood type is matched to the patient to reduce the risk of

13:53complications however the role of the Precision medicine in patient treatment is relatively Limited

14:06question 29 Now read the

14:25question in most people with alopecia AR hair falls out in small round patches

14:32leaving round shaped areas of bare skin often this patchy hair loss occurs on

14:37the scalp however it can affect other parts of the body as well rarely the hair loss involves the entire sculp a

14:45condition called alopecia totalis or else even the whole body becomes hairless a condition called alopecia

14:52universalis there are also other forms of alopecia ariata that occur very

14:58rarely with which have different patterns of hair loss however the hair usually grows back after several months

15:05though it may fall out

15:15again question 30 Now read the

15:27question

15:36a genetic condition called cytochrome SE oxidase deficiency affects several parts

15:41of the body including the skeletal muscles the brain the heart or the liver

15:46usually the symptoms and signs begin before 2 years of age however appear at

15:52a later stage in mildly affected individuals the severity of the disease

15:57varies widely among among affected patients even among those who belong to the same family patients with mild

16:04cytochrome C oxidase deficiency tend to have myopathy and hypotonia with no

16:10other related health issues more severely affected patients have problems in multiple body systems including encom

16:18myopathy hypertrophic cardiomyopathy another possible feature of this condition is an enlarged liver

16:25called hepatomegaly that may result in liver fail many patients with cytochrome C oxidase

16:31deficiency have a specific group of features known as lay syndrome that

16:36include movement problems loss of mental function eating difficulties

16:41hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and brain

16:56abnormalities that is the end of part Part B now look at part

17:05C part C in this part of the text you’ll hear two different extracts in each

17:12extract you’ll hear health professionals talking about aspects of their work for

17:17questions 31 to 42 choose the answer a b

17:23or c which fits best according to what you hear comp complete the answers as

17:29you listen now look at extract one extract one questions 31 to

17:3836 you may have 90 seconds to read questions 31 to

17:5736

19:06the samples of tissue cells can be taken from almost any part of the body depending on the type of tumor and its

19:12location the method of taking samples is determined for instance the methods

19:18followed for brain biopsies is entirely different for skin biopsies certain

19:23types of biopsies involve the removal of an entire organ which are only performed

19:28by surgeons however other types of biopsies remove tumor samples using a

19:34thin needle or through an endoscope in this session I’m going to explain the most common types of biopsies used in

19:41cancer diagnosis needle biopsy fine needle biopsy or fine needle aspiration

19:47and core needle biopsy or core aspiration are the two types of needle biopsies fine needle aspiration is

19:55performed using a thin Hollow needle effect fix to a syringe to pull out small pieces of tissue and a small

20:02amount of fluid from the tumor in case the tumor is deep inside the body and

20:07cannot be felt then the needle can be guided while watching on an Imaging tool such as an ultrasound or CT scan the

20:15main advantages of fine needle aspiration are that there is no need to cut the skin and in some cases the

20:22diagnosis is made on the same day however the disadvantage is that

20:27sometimes it becomes impossible to remove enough tissue for a detailed diagnosis although fine needle

20:34aspiration is a type of biopsy it is also classified as a cytology test

20:39however in a core biopsy the needles are slightly larger than those used in fine needle aspiration in a core biopsy a

20:48small cylinder of tissue is removed at times special vacuum tools are used to

20:53get larger core biopsies from breast tissue however diagnosing core biopsy

20:58samples take longer than fine needle aspiration biopsies therefore the results also take longer excisional or

21:07incisional biopsy in this type of biopsy the surgeon cuts through the skin to remove the complete tumor called an

21:14excisional biopsy or a part of a large tumor called an incisional biopsy in an

21:20endoscopic biopsy is a flexible thin lighted tube with a lens or a video

21:25camera affixed at the end allowing The Physician to look into the internal parts of the body tissue samples are

21:32also taken out through the endoscopic biopsy different types of endoscopes are used to look at specific parts of the

21:39body for instance one kind of endoscopy is used to look at the inside of the

21:45throat sinuses and nose laparoscopic thorascopic and

21:51mediastinoscopy although laparoscopy is much like endoscopy it uses a slightly a

21:57laparoscope to look inside the abdomen and remove tissue samples similar procedures are followed to look inside

22:03the chest these are called thoros scopy and mediastinoscopy laparatomy and

22:10thoracotomy laparatomy is a kind of surgery where vertical cut is made from upper to lower abdomen to remove samples

22:18this may be performed when the suspected area could not be diagnosed with other simpler tests there are many ways to

22:25perform a biopsy the skin based on the type of suspected skin tumor shave

22:30biopsies remove the outer layers of the skin for certain basil cell or squamous

22:36cell skin cancers however they aren’t used for the suspected melanomas of the

22:41skin as discussed earlier punch biopsies or excisional biopsies are used to

22:47remove deeper skin layers and are diagnosed How Deeply a melanoma has gone into the skin Sentinel lymph node

22:53mapping and biopsy helps the surgeon to know which lymph nodes to remove for biopsy Sentinel node mapping and biopsy

23:01is a common way to diagnose whether a cancer such as melanoma or breast cancer

23:07has spread to the lymph nodes this can detect the lymph nodes that drain lymph fluid from where the cancer originated

23:14if the cancer is metastasized these lymph nodes are usually the primary parts to

23:26affect

23:38now look at extract two extract two questions 37 to 42 you now have 90

23:46seconds to read questions 37 to

23:5642

25:27cose Acoma is a type of cancer that forms from the cells that line blood vessels or lymph it usually looks like

25:34tumors on the skin or on mucose or surfaces such as inside the mouth

25:39however kosis sacoma tumors can also develop in other parts such as in the lymph nodes digestive tract or the lungs

25:48the abnormal cells of capos sucoma form red purple or brown tumors or blotches

25:54on the skin these affected areas are known as lesions often the skin lesions

26:00of kosis sakom appear on the face or legs however usually they cause no

26:07symptoms certain lesions on the groin area or legs may cause a painful

26:12swelling on the legs and feet kosis saroma can cause severe problems or even

26:18become life-threatening when the lesions are in the digestive tract liver or lungs for instance kosi ciroma can cause

26:27bleeding while tumors in the lungs may cause trouble breathing the different

26:32types of kosi saroma are defined by the different populations it develops in

26:37however the changes within the kosi sucoma cells are very similar epidemic

26:42kosi sucoma or AIDS related kosis saroma the most common type of kosis saroma in

26:49the US is epidemic or AIDS related kosis saroma this type of kosis saroma

26:56develops in people who are infected infected with HIV however a HIV infected

27:02person does not necessarily have AIDS the virus may be present in the body for

27:07a long time often many years before causing any illness the disease called

27:13AIDS outbreaks when the virus completely damages the immune system resulting in certain types of infections or other

27:19medical complications including kosi sucoma when HIV damages the immune

27:26system patients and infected with a certain virus are more likely to develop kosis saroma kosis saroma is considered

27:34an AIDS defining illness that is when kosi saroma occurs in the patients

27:39infected with HIV that patient officially has AIDS in the US treating

27:45HIV infection with highly active anti-retroviral therapy has resulted in

27:51fewer cases of epidemic kosi saroma yet certain patients develop symptoms of Kos

27:57suoma in the first few months of Highly active anti-retroviral therapy for HIV patients highly active

28:06anti- retroviral therapy can often progress the kosi suoma development

28:12however kosi suoma can occur in people whose HIV is well under control with

28:18highly active anti-retroviral therapy once kosis sakom develops it is

28:24still essential to continue highly active anti retro viral therapy in the regions where highly active

28:30anti-retroviral therapy is not accessible kosi saroma in AIDS patients

28:35can advance quickly classic or Mediterranean capos sakom occurs mainly in older people of

28:43Mediterranean Middle Eastern and Eastern European Heritage Classic kosi saroma is

28:49more common in men than in women patients have one or more lesions on their ankles legs or the soles of the

28:56feet compared to to other types of kosi saroma the lesions and classic kosi

29:01saroma do not grow quickly and new lesions do not form as often the immune

29:07system of patients with classic kosi saroma is not as weak as it is in those

29:12who have epidemic AOS saroma but it may become weaker than normal when this

29:18occurs people who already have aapos suoma Associated herpes virus infection are

29:26more likely develop kosis sakom endemic kosis sakom or African kosis suoma

29:34endemic kosis sakom occurs in people in Equatorial Africa kosi sakom Associated

29:41herpes virus infection is very common in Africa therefore the risk of kosi sakom

29:47very high probably there are other factors in this region that weaken the immune system such as malnutrition

29:54malaria and other chronic infections which may also contribute to the development of kosi saroma endemic kosi

30:02saroma incurs in younger people under 40 rarely an aggressive form of endemic

30:07kosi saroma is seen in children before puberty this type of kosi sarcoma

30:13usually affects the lymph nodes and other organs and can progress quickly latrogenic kosis suoma or transplant

30:22related kosis sakom when kosis sakom develops in patients who immune systems

30:28have been damaged after an organ transplant it is known as otogenic capos

30:34saroma or transplanted related kosis suoma most transplant patients should

30:39take drugs to keep their immune system from rejecting the new organ but by weakening the immune system of the body

30:46these drugs increase the chance that patients infected with the herpes virus will develop kosi saroma discontinuing

30:54such immunosuppressive drugs or l lowering the dose often makes kosis

30:59Aroma lesions go away or get

31:07smaller that is the end of part C you now have 2 minutes to check your

31:15answers that is the end of this listening test thank you very much for

31:20practicing this test with lifestyle training center you can now check in the

31:26description and verify your answers if you find this video helpful please

31:31subscribe to our Channel and write down your comments and let us know how you feel about it if you need more help or

31:38for training please feel free to contact us details can be found in the

31:43description until we see you next time take care bye-bye

English (auto-generated)AllFrom Lifestyle Training CentreFor youRecently uploadedWatched

Jonathan OET listening test answers

Answer keys:

1. Avelox
2. Sensation Of Taste
3. Lateral Tongue
4. Twice A Month
5. Hernia Repair Surgery


6. Codeine
7. Oral Cavity
8. Intrabuccal Mucosa
9. FiberopticNasopharyngoscopy
10. Large Inferior Turbinates
11. Persistent Paresthesia


12. Xerostomia
13. Edema
14. Right Inguinal Hernia
15. Right Thumb
16. Chlordiazepoxide And Clidinium Combination
17. Auscultation And Percussion
18. Soft Systolic Murmur
19. Sinus Rhythm With Left Ventricular Hypertrophy


20. Peak Oxygen Consumption
21. Ejection Fraction
22. Dyslipidemia
23. Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitor
24. Implantable Cardioverter defibrillator
25. B
26. B
27. C


28. A
29. A
30. A
31. B
32. C
33. A
34. A


35. C
36. B
37. B
38. B
39. C
40. B
41. C
42. C

How did it go? How much did you score?

We hope this information has been valuable to you. If so, please consider a monetary donation to Lifestyle Training Centre via UPI. Your support is greatly appreciated.

Would you like to undergo training for OET, PTE, IELTS, Duolingo, Phonetics, or Spoken English with us? Kindly contact us now!

📱 Call/WhatsApp/Text: +91 9886926773

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Follow Lifestyle Training Centre on social media:

Thank you very much!

Watch on Youtube, Jonathan OET listening test.

Access more OET listening tests

3. IELTS process diagram. Leather goods production.

The diagram below shows how leather goods are produced. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and making comparisons where relevant.

Model answer by Lifestyle Training Centre. Version 1

The provided process diagram meticulously details the sequential steps involved in the transformation of animal skins into refined leather products.

To encapsulate the entire process, it encompasses crucial stages such as drying, transportation, washing, soaking, flattening, polishing, and the ultimate crafting of the final product.

Delving deeper into the process, it commences with the initial step of drying damp animal skins. Subsequently, trucks transport these dried skins to a designated factory, where they undergo a thorough washing process involving water and lime. Following the washing stage, the skins go through a soaking phase in lime, further preparing them for subsequent steps.

Advancing to the next crucial stage, the soaked and prepared skin undergoes flattening and enters the tanning process. This involves immersion in a solution consisting of water and vegetable matter. The tanned skin then undergoes polishing, enhancing its appearance and texture. The final stage involves sending the polished leather to a manufacturing facility via delivery trucks, where it is crafted into an array of diverse leather products.

Model answer by Lifestyle Training Centre. Version 2

The provided process diagram meticulously outlines the intricate steps that are involved in transforming animal skins into various leather products.

In a nutshell, the entire process comprises more than ten stages, which includes drying, transporting, washing, soaking, flattening, polishing, and ultimately crafting the final product.

Zooming in on the details, we can observe that it all starts with drying the damp animal skins. Once the skins are dry, trucks deliver them into a factory where it undergoes washing in water mixed with lime followed by a soaking stage in lime.

In the next stage, the soaked skin is flattened and subjected to tanning by soaking again, this time in a mix of water and vegetable matter. The skin will then be polished by the use of a machine wheel and sent to a factory via delivery trucks. At this stage, the skin is crafted into various types of leather products.




2. IELTS process diagram.  Bricks manufacturing answer

The diagram below shows the process by which bricks are manufactured for the building industry.  Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.

Model answer by Lifestyle Training Centre

The provided process diagram intricately outlines the multifaceted steps the building industry undertakes in order to produce bricks.

The overall process comprises three stages; the initial procurement of raw materials, the actual production phase, and finally, packing and delivering the end product.

The entire process is initiated with the excavation of clay using a digger. A metal grid filters the clay, and a roller moves the fine clay for mixing, where the clay is blended with sand and water. Bricks are made at this stage through the utilisation of either a wire cutter or a mould. The bricks are then sent to an oven for drying.

After 24 to 48 hours of baking in the drying oven, the bricks undergo further processing in a kiln; first, at temperatures ranging from 200 to 980 degrees Celsius followed by high temperatures ranging from 870 to 1300 degrees Celsius. Once the baking is finished, the bricks are cooled down in a chamber for 2 to 3 days. After cooling, the bricks are packed and delivered in a truck.

(word count: 175)

IELTS Process diagram questions and answers

In an IELTS task involving a process diagram, candidates are asked to analyse and describe a series of steps or stages in a given process. The diagram could represent anything from a manufacturing process to a natural cycle. The key is to outline the sequence of events logically and to highlight significant details or changes at each stage. The ability to convey this information clearly and coherently is crucial for a successful response.

1. IELTS process diagram. Orange juice production.

The diagram below shows how orange juice is produced. Summarise the important information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.

VIEW ANSWER

2. IELTS process diagram.  Bricks manufacturing

The diagram below shows the process by which bricks are manufactured for the building industry.  Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.

View model answer

3. IELTS process diagram. Leather goods production.

The diagram below shows how leather goods are produced. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and making comparisons where relevant.

View model answer

4. IELTS process diagram. Generating electricity from wave.

The diagrams below show a structure that is used to generate electricity from wave power. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.

5. IELTS process diagram. Rainwater harvesting

The diagram shows how rainwater is collected for the use of drinking water in an Australian town.

View model answer

6. IELTS process diagram. Production of honey

The diagram illustrates how bees produce honey. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.

Nectar: a sweet liquid produced by flowers
Hive: a container where bees live
Evaporation: water changing to gas

View model answer

7. IELTS process diagram: Biofuel production:

VIEW MODEL ANSWER

IELTS Bar chart + Pie diagram

In an IELTS task featuring a bar chart and a pie diagram, candidates are typically required to interpret and describe information from both visuals. The bar chart might present quantitative data, such as trends or comparisons over time, while the pie diagram typically represents proportions or percentages of a whole. The task involves summarising key points, noting significant patterns or relationships, and effectively communicating the information presented in both visuals. Success in this task depends on the ability to provide a clear and concise written response.

1. IELTS Bar chart + Pie diagram. Estimated sales of jeans:

The bar chart below shows the estimated sales of jeans for two companies next year in Turkey. The pie chart shows the projected market share of the two companies in jeans at the end of next year. Write a short report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below.

  1. IETLS bart chart + pie chart. Estimated sales of jeans in Turkey.

2. Favourite takeaways of people in Canada

The charts below show the favourite takeaways of people in Canada and the number of Indian restaurants in Canada between 1960 and 2015. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.

IELTS Bar chart + line diagram

In an IELTS task featuring a bar chart and a line diagram, candidates must analyze and present data from both visuals. This entails summarizing main trends, making comparisons, and noting significant details. The ability to convey information concisely and accurately is crucial for a successful response.

1. IELTS Bar chart + Line diagram: Participants who have entered the Olympics:

The chart and graph below give information about participants who have entered the Olympics since it began. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.

View model answer

2. IELTS Bar chart + Line diagram

4. IELTS line graph: Employment in the USA

Model answer by Lifestyle Training Centre

The given line diagram projects job opportunities in three different sectors, namely, manufacturing, services, and agriculture, in the United States of America, spanning from 1975 to year 2025. The numbers are portrayed in millions.

Evidently, employment in the services sector demonstrates a marked upward trajectory throughout the given period. In comparison, both the agricultural sector and the manufacturing sector experience a decline in jobs, despite a notable surge in manufacturing sector in the initial half.

Zooming in, the services sector, which had 10 million jobs in 1975, witnesses only a marginal ascent to around 15 million by 1979. However, then on, it skyrockets to nearly 90 million by 2025, marking an astounding upsurge.

The agriculture sector, despite initially holding the top position in employment with 80 million jobs from 1975 to 1977, undergoes a dramatic plunge and decreases to nearly 10 million by 2025. Interestingly, the manufacturing sector, though it had risen from around 10 million in 1975 to a substantial 40 million jobs in 1980, ultimately tumbles close to the initial numbers by 2025.

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TREATMENT OF FRACTURES OET READING

Text A Reduction: A clinician can achieve a reduction by closed manipulation – in which the displaced bone fragments are pulled into their anatomical position – restoring alignment or by open reduction through a surgical incision. Immobilisation can be achieved by internal or external fixation devices, which are available in many forms. Internal fixation involves the patient undergoing a surgical procedure and includes devices such as intramedullary nails, compression nails, plates and screws. Internal fixation is used in certain pathological fractures, when sufficient reduction cannot be maintained by external fixation, for example, when fractures involve joint surfaces, when it is important to allow early limb or joint movement, or when trying to avoid long periods of immobilisation in bed. External fixation can be achieved through surgical, as well as conservative techniques, and includes slings, cast immobilisation, skin or skeletal traction and external fixator frames.

TEXT B: Rehabilitation: Restoration of the upright position and early mobilization decrease cardiopulmonary and other immobility associated complications, for example. pressure ulcers, constipation. and urinary stasis. Following recovery or once the fracture is stable, the limb can be mobilised and range of movement exercises can begin. Deciding on the right time to begin physiotherapy is difficult. Rehabilitation should not commence too early as this may result in malunion of the bone, however, it should not even begin too late resulting in a perfect union of bone, but muscles are unable to operate the limb. Nurses have a responsibility to know what type of rehabilitation programme patients are undergoing; whether this is fully weight-bearing, partial weight-bearing, touch-toe-bearing or non-weightbearing; and also what mobilisation aids, if any, are being used, so that they are able to continue mobilising patients when physiotherapy services are not available.

Text C The complications associated with fractures can be classified as immediate, early or late. Nurses must observe for complications and take preventive measures.

ImmediateEarlyLate
Soft tissue damage
Nerve injury
Haemorrhage
Infection
Neurovascular compromise
Fat embolism
Pulmonary embolism
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
Compartment syndrome
Pressure ulcers
Chest infection
Exacerbation of generalised illness
Mal-union
Delayed union
Non-union
Osteoarthritis
Avascular necrosis    



Text D: Pain assessment and management: Although pain is a useful sensation in alerting us to disease or injury, it should not be accepted as a normal and inevitable part of recovery from injury or surgery. Assessment of pain is essential to ensure that the correct analgesic for the condition is prescribed and administered, and that it is having the desired effect with minimal side effects. The nurse caring for the patient, who has sustained a fracture should have knowledge of available medications and their actions, side effects and dosages. Pre-emptive analgesia should be provided so that the patient’s pain is sufficiently managed before and during rehabilitation sessions. Non-pharmacological methods of pain control such as positioning, distraction techniques and massage may also benefit patients.


In which text can you find information about:

1. Necessary to take preventive measures
2 To help the patient cope with disability.
3. Minimising the risk of deficit and in detecting early signs of the development.
4 At risk of death from a relatively simple transverse fracture of the tibia, if it is not detected.
5. To restore normal alignment of the bone.
6 To ensure that the reduced position is maintained until the bone union takes place.
7. Internal and external haemorrhage.



Questions 8-14 Answer each of the questions, 8-14, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts.

8. What can be provided for effective pain management?
9. When can it be possible to make the patient ready for movement?
10. What should not be regarded as the unavoidable part of recovery from injury?
11 What is the example given for a non-rigid method of support?
12. What may involve a surgical process?
13 What knowledge shall a nurse have when it comes to effective caring for the patient who is fractured?
14 How can reduction successfully be performed?
Questions 15-20Complete each of the sentences, 15-20, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts.
15. Because of a period of immobilisation and the effects of surgery, patients are at a risk of developing ______________
16. A ______________ may lead to osteoarthritis as a result of an abnormal distribution of load leading to an early degenerative change.
17. There are ______________ that carry the risk of damage to particular arteries.
18. Pain is considered a ______________ which make one aware of the injury.
19. A ______________ is an uncommon but serious complication.
20. Besides the blood loss from the ______________ , the sharp bone ends found in a spiral or comminuted fracture, for example, may damage the surrounding muscle or blood vessels.



PART B. For questions 1-6, choose the answer (A, B or C) which you think fits best according to the text.

1 The following is a model
A. Manual calibration B. True gravity calibration C. Wall sphygmomanometer
Mercury-gravity Manometer: The mercury-gravity manometer consists of a calibrated cartridge glass tube that is optically clear, easy to clean, and abrasion resistant. The mercury reservoir at the bottom of the tube communicates with a compression cuff through a rubber tube. When air pressure is exerted on the mercury in the reservoir by pumping the pressure bulb, the mercury in the glass tube rises and indicates how much pressure the cuff applies against the artery. The manometer is connected to the wall for ease of accurate visualization.

2 The manual gives information about;
A. Indications of emergency treatment.
B. How the device can effectively be used?
C. Indications for using the Power heart AED G3
Automatic devices like Power heart AED are intended to be used by the personnel who are trained in its operation. The user should be qualified by training in basic life support or other emergency medical response authorized by physicians. The device is indicated for emergency treatment of victims exhibiting symptoms of sudden cardiac arrest, who are unresponsive and not breathing.
Post-resuscitation, if the victim is breathing, the AED should be left attached to allow for acquisition and detection of the ECG rhythm. If a shockable ventricular tachyarrhythmia recurs, the device will charge automatically and advise the operator to deliver therapy (G3) or automatically deliver the shock (G3 Automatic). If the patient is a child or an infant up to 8 years of age, or up to 55 lbs (25kg), the device should be used with the Model 9730 Pediatric Attenuated Defibrillation Electrodes. The therapy should not be delayed to determine the exact age or weight of the patient.

3. Pick the correct statement;
A. Data suggests that NAFLD is more common than any other diseases.
B. NAFLD is more prevalent in Middle East.
C. NAFLD is more prevalent in Africa.
Prevalence of NAFLD – In Contrast to Other Diseases: The meta-analysis estimated that the overall global prevalence of NAFLD diagnosed by imaging I around 25.24% (95% CI, 22.10-28.65). The ubiquity rate of NAFLD in the Middle East can be reported as follows: (31.79% [95% CI, 13.48- 58.23]) and South America (30.45% [95% CI, 22.74-39.440]), whereas the lowest prevalence rate is reported from Africa (13.48% [5.69- 28.69]).

4 The manual talks about;
A. Critical Illness & Treatment Of Delirium
B. Delirium In Critical Care
C. Impact Of Delirium On ICU Patient
Delirium: The study of disease transmission of Delirium in sick patients is currently perceived as a general well-being issue, influencing the mechanically ventilated grown-up ICU patients up to 80%, and costing $4 to $16 billion every year in the United States alone. Effect of Delirium, as a sign of intense cerebrum brokenness, is a free critical indicator of negative clinical results in ICU patients that includes expanded mortality, healing facility LOS, expense of consideration, and long-haul psychological weakness reliable with a dementia-like state. Patients with long-haul presentation to high-measurements sedatives or medications may create physiologic reliance, and unexpected suspension may bring about medication withdrawal side effects. This session likewise incorporates Impact of Delirium on ICU Patient Outcomes, Epidemiology of insanity in ICU patients, Preventing, Detecting, and Treatment because of Alcohol and drug Withdrawal. Critical illness and appraisal of incoherence, Risk element of wooziness.



5 As per the report, what is correct?
A. Talk about 2050 neonates.
B. Major reason for admission into hospital was related to CMV.
C. Gestational age is taken as an important factor for the study conducted.
A Report; Two hundred and sixty-one neonates born at the hospital were admitted to the neonatal ICU during the study period. Two patients were excluded because they had received transfusions of blood products before urine collection (0.76%), two because the consent was not obtained (0.76%), one because the urine sample was lost (0.38%), two died before collection (0.76%) and four were lost because they were discharged early, before urine collection (1.5%).
The study population comprised 145 male NB (58%) and 105 female NB (42%).
The principal causes of admission to the ICU were prematurity (111 cases, 44.4%), respiratory dysfunction (64 cases, 25.6%), sepsis (31 cases, 12.4%) and hypoglycemia (21 cases, 8.4%). The mean weight of the newborn population studied was 2,412±900 g and mean gestational age was 35.7±3.7 weeks.

6. From the given manual, it is clear that;
A. The device will analyze ECG and can make shock deliverance simple.
B. Non-committed shock is possible through the device.
C. The device automatically shifts from one phase to other phase of operations as per the rhythmic changes.
After the AED advises a shock, it continues to monitor the ECG rhythm of the patient. If the ECG rhythm changes to a non-shockable rhythm before the actual shock is delivered, the AED will advise that the rhythm has changed and issue the prompt “RHYTHM CHANGED. SHOCK CANCELLED.” The AED will override the charge and continue ECG analysis. Synchronized Shock:- The AED is designed to automatically attempt to synchronize shock delivery on the R-wave, if one is present. If delivery cannot be synchronized within one second, a nonsynchronized shock will be delivered.


PART C. TEXT 1. OPIOID-INDUCED CONSTIPATION
The human opioid system is highly complex and includes three main endogenous opioid receptors (µ, κ and δ receptors), as well as a number of endogenous opioid peptides such as endorphins, enkephalins, and dynorphins, which activate these receptors. Opioid receptors are widely distributed in the brain and spinal cord, as well as in a variety of peripheral tissues such as the gut, airways, blood vessels, and heart. When activated, the opioid receptors located in the brain and spinal cord mediate the analgesic effects of the opioids. Unfortunately, activation of opioid receptors in the gut can significantly impair intestinal activity and lead to OIC.

Mu-opioid receptors, and to a lesser extent κ-opioid receptors, are expressed extensively throughout the gastrointestinal tract and enteric nervous system. When opioid receptors are stimulated they may alter or more precisely decrease peristalsis, inhibit intestinal transit, increase intestinal fluid absorption and decrease intestinal secretions. All of these effects combine to cause significant constipation. A clinical syndrome of opioid-induced bowel dysfunction may occur with chronic opioid use that is characterized by abdominal pain, hard stools, fecal impaction, anorexia, nausea and vomiting.

A 2009 study by Bell et al., examined the prevalence, severity and impact of OIC in 322 patients taking daily opioids. The investigators found that 81% of the patients in their study reported OIC and that the majority of patients with OIC reported at least a moderate negative impact on quality of life and activities of daily living. One third of patients with OIC missed the doses, decreased dosage or stopped using opioids completely in order to improve their bowel function. A second study by Bell found that the patients with OIC were more likely to take time off from work and were less productive in both their work and home environments.
With continued opioid use, patients often become adept at dealing with the analgesic effects of the opioids. The mechanism of opioid tolerance is likely related to down-regulation (decreased numbers) or desensitization of µ-opioid receptors in the CNS. Binding of opioids to the µ receptor activates numerous downstream intracellular pathways. Activated G-protein-dependent signaling pathways appear involved in receptor desensitization while G-proteinin dependent signaling pathways appear to facilitate µ receptor endocytosis and subsequent downregulation of receptors. Fortunately, tolerance to the respiratory depressant effects of the opioids also develops in parallel to the tolerance seen with the analgesic effects. Interestingly, however, tolerance does not occur to the constipating effect of the opioids.
Opioid-induced constipation and opioid bowel dysfunction presents with a myriad of symptoms. Diagnosis of OIC should begin with a detailed patient history that includes frequency of bowel movements, the consistency of stool, and the presence of straining, pain, nausea and vomiting. A physical examination should also be conducted including the bowel sounds, and abdominal palpation for firmness, distention and the presence of pain. The possibility of fecal impaction should also be assessed in patients with persistent and severe constipation. A number of nonpharmacologic and pharmacologic options are available with respect to effective elimination of this condition. Although current treatment recommendations support the prophylactic use of various bowel regimens in patients receiving opioid therapy, definitive studies showing the superiority of one treatment regimen over another are currently lacking.

The overall strategy to prevent OIC and to start with the onset of opioid therapy, include adequate fluid and fiber intake, and increased physical activity. A recent study showed that patients with post- operative constipation, who received bowel massage by nurses had reduced symptoms of constipation, increased stool output and improved quality of life with no significant adverse side effects. However, in another study, it is showed that while abdominal massage was useful for decreasing the severity of constipation symptoms, it did not lead to curtailing down of laxative. Bowel “diaries” which track the frequency of bowel movements might also be helpful for determining the severity of the OIC that is occurring. While helpful, nonpharmacologic interventions are seldom successful alone for the management of OIC.

Senior nurses should be ideally situated to identify patients at high risk for OIC and ruling out other causes of chronic constipation. A detailed patient history should be obtained, which will include physical activity, and a review of all medications the patient is currently taking. A thorough patient examination should be conducted and accompanying signs and symptoms such nausea, vomiting or abdominal pain/distention should be noted. Nurses should monitor patient bowel habits as well as the quantity and quality of stools.


7. In the first paragraph, the writer talks about;
A. OIC in general
B. Types of OIC receptors
C. How OIC occurs?
D. Distribution of opioid receptors.
8. As per paragraph two, activation of opioid receptors will;
A. Lead to intestinal movement
B. Cause hard stools
C. Lead to constipation
D. Cause abdominal pain
9. What do we learn about OIC in the third paragraph?
A. Research conducted by Bell
B. Impact of OIC on life
C. How OIC will affect?
D. Cessation of opioid pain therapy
10 What do we learn from the fourth paragraph?
A. Opioid acceptance behaviour among patients
B. Ability to deal with the analgesic effects
C. Resilience and OIC
D. Opioid Tolerance and OIC
11. What is not right as per the information given in the fifth paragraph?
A. A large number of symptoms arises that lead to OIC.
B. Detection of bowel sounds, presence of nausea are common.
C. Patients suffering from the disease will vomit, feel abdominal pain.
D. None of the above
12. In paragraph six, the writer gives information on;
A. How OIC can easily be avoided?
B. Nonpharmacologic management of OIC.
C. Steps to be taken to deal with OIC.
D. How OIC can be prevented?
13. Pick the incorrect statement related to the study performed as explained by the writer;
A. Only nonpharmacologic interventions can be effective.
B. Bowel massage is effective in eliminating many of the problems associated with OIC.
C. Stool output can be improved.
D. Use of laxative can certainly be decreased.
14 In the final paragraph, the writer talks about;
A. Importance of taking patient`s history.
B. Identifying risks.
C. Role of the advanced practice nurse in OIC.
D. Treatment procedure.


PART C. TEXT 2: VACCINATION

Vaccination as a deliberate attempt to protect human beings against disease has a long history and more widespread use of vaccines could prevent about 1.6 million deaths a year among children less than five years of age. Over the next few years a new generation of vaccines will become available that could save the lives of up to 10 million individuals: e.g., vaccines against diarrhoeal diseases, hepatitis C, malaria, acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), sexually transmitted and other diseases. Current development efforts seek combination vaccines that protect against multiple pathogens, with a goal of combining all the antigens recommended for routine immunization into a single multivalent product.

Combining multiple related or unrelated antigens into a single vaccine is not a new concept and the first combination vaccine licensed in the United States of America was trivalent influenza in 1945. Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus (DPT) vaccine although developed in 1943, was not licensed till 1948. Efforts to overcome the interference seen with simultaneous administration of three live vaccines delayed the licensing of trivalent Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) till 1963. Measles, Mumps,Rubella (MMR) was licensed in 1971 and quadrivalent meningococcal vaccine in 1978.

Combining multiple antigens into one injection requires demonstration that the combination will not materially reduce the safety or immunogenicity of the component vaccines. Combination vaccine trials should be prospective, randomised, double blinded and should have control (comparison) groups.Identifying the control groups could be problematic when multicomponent vaccine is evaluated. Other factors like sequence of administration of certain antigens may play an important role in immunogenicity.

The interaction can enhance the immune response to individual components as it occurs in whole cell pertussis vaccine, when combined with diphtheria toxoid. Usually, a combination of vaccines results in no effect or a depression of immune response to one or more vaccine component. It is an immunologic phenomenon relevant to combination vaccines, antibody responses to hapten polysaccharide vaccine (e.g. H influenzae b) presented on a carrier protein (e.g. tetanus toxoid,diphtheria toxoid) are inhibited by prior immunization with the specific carrier.Combination live vaccines can interfere immunologically with each other, e.g., one vaccine may stimulate interferon production that may inhibit replication of another virus.

Interest in combining DPT/IPV was generated when enhanced potency IPV became available, thus eliminating the necessity of frozen shipments for OPV. In addition, administration of IPV would eliminate the risk of vaccine-associated polio. Antibody responses to pertussis and poliovirus components may be substantially reduced in combination than when given alone. However, poliovirus seroconversion rates and absolute antibody levels remained high in combined vaccines. Various studies have compared DPT combinations with unconjugated Polyribose phosphate (PRP) or conjugated PRP Hib vaccine. A number of studies have evaluated these combination vaccines and results are variable. In general, the groups with lower antibody responses still attained levels considered protective. One study evaluated the effect of booster dose of DPT/Hepatitis B/Hib given to subjects, who received DPT/Hepatitis B/ Hib for the primary series. The group hadhigh antibody response and mean levels were higher in the group primed with DPT/Hepatitis B/Hib, especially with PRP (Hib).

DTaP/HB combination vaccine retains the immunogenicity and safety profiles of the separate components and delivers good antibody concentrations at a variety of schedules. A comparison of combination vaccine at 2, 4, 6 months versus the currently recommended schedules-HB at birth, 1 & 6 months and DPT at 6, 10 & 14 weeks, found similar or higher antibody responses for combined vaccine for every component, which was significantly lower. However, the mean HB antibody levels were high and 98% of subjects had levels greater than 10mIU/mL, which are considered protective. A study comparing combination vaccine and separate vaccines given at 2, 4, 6 and booster between 12 and 15 months of age has shown that the antibody response to Hib, were 72% and 76% at 6 months, increasing to 92% and 93% after booster dose with combination and separate vaccines respectively.


15. In the first paragraph, writer says that;
A. Combination vaccines are the new phase of development.
B. Vaccines implemented have changed lives of people across the globe.
C. Vaccines provide effective protection from a large number of pathogens c.
D. Use of vaccines have led to curtailing down of deaths in millions.
16. In paragraph 2, the writer says
A. Combination vaccines came into being in 1940s.
B. DPT was the first combined vaccine to be used.
C. OPV was not introduced before 1963.
D. MMR is an example of effective combined vaccine.
17. Paragraph three talks about;
A. Immunogenicity of the prepared vaccines.
B. Importance of conducting trails.
C. Facts that have direct impact on immunogenicity.
D. Challenges in the development of combined vaccines.
18 In paragraph four, the writer has described;
A. Immunological interference
B. Antigen role
C. Induction of interferon
D. B and C
19. Immunologic phenomena relevant to combination vaccines gives an idea about;
A. Induction of interferon B.
Carrier induced epitope expression
C. Antigen competition
D. Immunological interference
20 As per paragraph five, what is more relevant?
A. DPT/Conjugate (Hib) will often be not more effective.
B. Combined vaccines often produce different results.
C. DPT/IPV came into being only after potency IPV became available.
D. DPT/Hepatitis B and DPT/Hepatitis B/Hib have more potential to produce same results
21. In paragraph 6, the writer says;
A. Taking vaccines at an early age is important.
B. Various combinations bring in various results.
C. Combinations with DTaP is proven to be more effective
D. Separate vaccine shall be given as needed
22 In final paragraph, writer has directly or indirectly implied that;
A. Vaccines for newborn and children less than 3 years old are known to be more powerful.
B. Combined vaccines may not be as effective as separate vaccines.
C. Separate vaccines are more effective than combined vaccines.
D. Combined vaccine helps with retaining immunogenicity.


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