All posts by Jomon John

COPD OET role play

Interlocutor: SETTING: Patient’s Home
CARER: Your spouse is suffering from Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) and requires continuous oxygen. Mobility is now a problem. You have been caring for your spouse at home for two years but have recently returned to work. The nurse has just completed an assessment of his/her needs and is discussing full-time care options with you.
TASKS
When asked, say you have recently had to go back to work so are balancing being a carer and working full-time. You have put a fridge and microwave in the bedroom, and leave meals out every day, but you are worried it is not enough.
Admit you knew that eventually your spouse would need more round-the-clock support, but you hoped it wouldn’t be so soon. You have no idea what you are going to do now.
Say there is no way you can give up work and be a full-time carer as you need the money. Agree that a nursing home is a good option but there is no way your spouse will agree to it.
Ask how you will know which nursing home to choose.
Say that you will talk to your spouse about the option of a nursing home and let the nurse know what he/she says
SETTING: Patient’s Home
NURSE: You are making a home visit to a patient who is suffering from Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
and requires continuous oxygen. Mobility is now a problem. The patient’s spouse has been caring for him/her at home for two years but has recently returned to work. You have just completed an assessment of the patient’s needs and are discussing full-time care options with his/her carer.
TASKS:
Find out how the spouse has been managing since your last visit.
Reassure the spouse about his/her situation (doing all he/she can, very difficult to care and work full-time, etc.). Explain your assessment of the patient (e.g., needs constant monitoring, round-the-clock assistance, etc.).
Outline options (full-time carer or a nursing home). Explore the option of the spouse giving up work again.
Explain the benefits of a nursing home (high level of round-the-clock care, experienced staff, etc.).
Advise on choosing a nursing home (make a list of requirements, visit different options, speak to staff/residents, etc.). Offer to suggest local nursing homes for consideration.

Stroke OET role play

Interlocutor: SETTING: Hospital Rehabilitation Unit
CARER: You are visiting your 75-year-old mother who has been admitted to hospital following a stroke. Her speech and memory are impaired and she has limited mobility. You see the nurse just after he/she has completed clinical observations to ask for advice about your visits. Your mother is not present.
TASK:
When asked, say you saw that the nurse just checked in on your mother, and you want to know how she is doing.
When asked, say she seemed okay when you last saw her; you’re glad to hear she’s a little bit better. Say you’re intending to visit your mother every day but you want to make sure you don’t tire her out.
Say you’ll try to be aware when your mother seems tired. Say when you saw her yesterday, you felt helpless as you weren’t sure what you could do for her.
Ask if you can take your mother outside when you visit so she can get some fresh air.
Say you’ll follow the nurse’s advice about visits; you hope your mother will soon be well enough to leave the ward.
SETTING: Hospital Rehabilitation Unit
NURSE: Your patient is a 76-year-old woman who has been admitted to the ward following a stroke. Her speech and memory are impaired and she has limited mobility. You have just completed clinical observations. Her son/daughter asks you for advice about his/her visits. His/her mother is not present.
TASK:
 Find out reason for request to see you.
Give information about patient’s condition (first stage of recovery, vital signs: satisfactory; memory/speech capabilities: no change; mobility: slight improvement, etc.). Find out son/daughter’s opinion of mother’s condition.
Confirm benefits of regular contact with family (e.g., lifting mood, energizing patient, passing time, establishing routine, etc.). Remind son/daughter of visiting regulations (e.g., maximum two visitors, not during mealtimes/treatment, etc.).
Make recommendations about visits (short duration, watch for signs of tiredness, no need for constant conversation, etc.).
Give advice on ways for son/daughter to help patient (e.g., do mobility exercises together, bring personal items to prompt memories, give encouragement, etc.).
Advise against patient leaving ward at present (e.g., regular monitoring required by nursing staff, need for improvement in patient’s strength, orientation, mobility, etc)

Headache OET role play

Interlocutor: SETTING: School Clinic
PATIENT: You are an athletic 18-year-old runner. You have a headache following an athletics event. In order to be able to run faster you reduced your breakfast this morning. You are visiting the school nurse to see what is wrong.
TASK
When asked, explain that your headache developed after the third race.
Admit when questioned to having a small glucose drink and an energy food bar rather than your usual full breakfast.
Insist that the headache has nothing to do with your breakfast and you want to know what to do now.
Agree to gradually increase fluids/foods and see if you feel better this afternoon.
Accept the nurse’s advice to eat a full breakfast in the future to avoid headaches.
SETTING: School Clinic:
NURSE: You are speaking to a student, an athletic 18-year-old runner, who has a headache following an athletics event. He/she is visiting you to see what is wrong.
Find out when the headache began.
Find out about the student’s food intake today (e.g., amount/type of food, volume/type of fluids, etc.).
Reassure the student that dehydration with excessive exercise is common if intake is insufficient.
Suggest that the student begins to eat/drink a small amount now (e.g., full, water, juice, etc.) and increase gradually.
Encourage the student to see how he/she feels in two hours and report back to you if the headache persists.
Give suggestions to help the student avoid getting this type of headache in the future (e.g., sufficient breakfast, fluids, etc.)

Brittle fingernails OET role play

Interlocutor: SETTING: Community Health Centre
PATIENT: You are 70 years old and are concerned because your fingernails have become yellow and break easily. You want some advice. The nurse has just examined your nails.
TASK:
When asked, say the problem started a couple of months ago; your fingernails became yellow and now break easily. You haven’t had this before. You haven’t injured your nails and they aren’t painful. You’ve only tried over-the-counter nail cream but it’s not helping.
Say you’re generally well and very active. You aren’t on any long-term medication. You don’t have any other symptoms.
Say you don’t drink very much water and you don’t eat that well; you don’t really like fruit and vegetables. You sometimes take vitamin supplements, but that’s it; It could be aging but you know that you don’t have a thyroid problem.
Say you’ll try to make some changes to your diet; you’ll try to eat more fruit and vegetables.
Say you’ll continue using the nail cream and you’ll make a doctor appointment.
SETTING: Community Health Centre
NURSE: You see a 70-year-old patient whose fingernails have become yellow and brittle. You suggest a possible cause and give advice on self-care. You have just examined his/her nails.
TASK:
Find out relevant details (onset, previous occurrences, any injury to nails, any pain, treatments tried, etc.).
Find out further information about patient (general health, new/long-term medication, any other symptoms, etc.).
Give possible causes of yellow/brittle nails (aging, poor diet/fluid intake, vitamin deficiency, underlying thyroid problem, etc.). Explore relevance of these to patient.
Explain that diet/fluid intake is likely cause of nail problem. Stress needs to make dietary changes (e.g., increase in fluid intake, balanced diet, etc.).
Make suggestions for improving condition of nails (e.g., regular use of nail cream, keeping nails short, etc.). Recommend making doctor appointment (e.g., health check, rule out any underlying problem/cause, etc.).

Sample role play transcript by Lifestyle Training Centre

Nurse: Hi, Soffiya. I have just completed checking your fingernails, and I understand that your fingernails appear yellow and brittle. Is that right?

Patient: Yes.

Okay, before we proceed any further, I would like to collect some information for documentation purposes. Can you please tell me your age?

Patient: Sure, I’m 70 years old.

Nurse: Do you smoke or drink?

Patient: I do not smoke.

Nurse: And when did this issue actually start? Have you experienced this anytime before? Have you ever injured your nails, especially recently?

Patient: I haven’t experienced this before, and I haven’t injured my nails recently.

Nurse: Do you experience any pain on your nails? Have you tried any treatments?

Patient: No pain, and I haven’t tried any treatments.

Nurse: Okay, I understand. I would like to collect some more information. Please tell me about your general health. Are you okay health-wise?

Patient: Yeah, I’m well.

Nurse: And are you on any long-term or new medication?

Patient: I am not taking any long-term medication.

Nurse: Do you experience any symptoms connected to this issue?

Patient: No, I don’t have any other symptoms.

Nurse: Okay, thanks for providing all this information. Now, let me also talk about the possible causes of this condition. Can you think of anything that may be causing this condition?

Patient: Not really, I’m not sure. I don’t drink much water. Is that a problem?

Nurse: Okay, we’ll come to that. First of all, age has some role in this. Maybe as we grow old, our fingernails become softer and not so strong. Maybe it has a part to play. And you say that you do not drink much water. It’s actually very important to stay hydrated. Please make sure that you drink regularly enough water. Do you understand?

Patient: Yes, I understand.

Nurse: Vitamin deficiency can contribute to this problem. So please make sure that you consume proper nutritious food and supplements. For example, do you take enough vegetables?

Patient: No, but I’ll try to pay more attention to my diet.

Nurse: Sometimes underlying thyroid problems can contribute to these kinds of issues. Do you have any thyroid issues?

Patient: No, I don’t have any thyroid issues.

Nurse: Okay, that’s good news. Please make sure that you make these changes, and increase your fluid intake and maintain a balanced diet. I also recommend that you schedule a doctor’s appointment, just to check your overall health. Could you do that?

Patient: Sure, I’ll make an appointment.

Nurse: Okay, that’s wonderful. Please apply nail creams regularly as well and see how it works. Cold you do that?

Patient: Yes, I’ll give it a try.

Nurse: In order to avoid any injuries, please make sure that you cut your nails short. That should also help. Okay?

Patient: Got it.

Nurse: Alright. Do you have any more concerns or questions?

Patient: No, thank you, I appreciate your help.

Nurse: You’re welcome. Take care, Soffiya.

Mock test on 18/03/2024

Nurse: Hi, John. I have just completed the assessment of your nails, and I understand that you are suffering from this condition where your nails are yellow and brittle. Is that right?

Patient: Yeah, that’s correct.

Nurse: Okay, I’m sorry, but I’ll be glad to assist you today. But before we proceed any further, I’d like to collect some information for documentation purposes, is that all right?

Patient: Yes, of course.

Nurse: Great. Let’s start with your age. How old are you, John?

Patient: I’m 70 years old.

Nurse: Do you smoke or drink?

Patient: No, I don’t.

Nurse: Do you have any ongoing health concerns apart from this issue with your nails?

Patient: No, I don’t have any other health concerns.

Nurse: Are you allergic to any food or medicines?

Patient: No, I’m not allergic to anything.

Nurse: Okay, when did this issue with your nails start exactly?

Patient: It’s been a couple of months now.

Nurse: And is this the first time you’re experiencing this issue, or have you had it before?

Patient: No, it’s the first time I’ve experienced this.

Nurse: Do you experience any pain or discomfort related to your nails?

Patient: No, not at the moment.

Nurse: Have you tried any treatments for your nails?

Patient: Yes, I’ve tried over-the-counter treatments, but they haven’t helped much.

Nurse: Okay, I understand. Based on your symptoms and history, can you tell me what you think may be causing this issue?

Patient: I’m not sure exactly, but my fingernails have become yellow and brittle.

Nurse: Understood. How would you describe your overall health aside from this nail issue?

Patient: I’m generally in good health, aside from this.

Nurse: Alright. Based on the information you’ve provided and my assessment, I think there could be a number of factors contributing to this problem. First of all, age can naturally affect the health of nails. Additionally, diet and hydration levels play a significant role. Do you drink enough water daily?

Patient: No, I don’t drink much water.

Nurse: Okay, that could be a contributing factor. It’s important to stay hydrated. Additionally, vitamin deficiency could contribute to this condition. Do you intake a vitamin rich diet?

Patient: Yes, I sometimes take vitamin supplements. May be my age is taking a toll on me.

Nurse: Okay John. One more thing; have you ever had any thyroid-related issues?

Patient: No, I haven’t had any thyroid problems.

Nurse: Alright. Please make sure to increase your water intake and improve your diet. Including more vegetables and fruits can help. Can you do that?

Patient: Yes, I’ll try.

Nurse: Great. Additionally, continue using your nail cream regularly and keep your nails short to avoid injuries. Okay?

Patient: Sure.

Nurse: I also recommend you to schedule a medical check-up with your doctor to rule out any underlying issues. How does that sound?

Patient: That sounds like a good plan.

Nurse: Alright. If you have any further questions or concerns, feel free to ask. Take care, John.

Patient: Thank you for your help, Nurse. I appreciate it.

Nurse: You’re welcome, John. Don’t hesitate to reach out if you need anything else. Have a good day.

Varicose veins OET role play

SETTING: Community Health Centre
PATIENT: You are 66 years old and are concerned about the varicose veins on your left leg, which have become
increasingly itchy. You would like some advice. The nurse has just examined your leg.
TASK: When asked, say you’re generally well and you don’t have any underlying health conditions.
Say the itching started a few months ago. In the past couple of weeks, some of the veins have become much itchier. When you scratch, your skin is becoming red, and there are scabs forming. Your veins are just a bit swollen, but they don’t hurt.
Say you haven’t used any medicated creams. You have occasionally used moisturisers, but they didn’t seem to help.
Say you’ll try an emollient cream and compression stockings. Say it’s very hard to stop scratching as they’re very itchy.
Say you’ll do what the nurse has suggested and make a doctor’s appointment if there’s no improvement.
SETTING: Community Health Centre
NURSE: You see a 66-year-old patient who is concerned about the varicose veins on his/her left leg, which have become
increasingly itchy. He/she would like some advice. You have just examined his/her leg.
TASK:
Confirm inflammation of varicose veins. Find out relevant patient details (general health, underlying health conditions, etc.).
Find out more details about symptoms: (onset, intensity of itching, any swelling, feeling of heat, etc).
Explain venous stasis dermatitis is the reason for itchiness (chronic inflammatory skin disease; blood build-up in damaged vessels, eventual leakage/oozing of blood into skin, etc.). Find out about any remedies tried (e.g., medicated creams, moisturizing lotions, etc.).
Make recommendations to ease itchiness (moisturize; at least twice a day, thick emollient without fragrance/dye; compression stockings, etc.).
Emphasize importance of not scratching (e.g., worsens itch, leads to cuts, infection, etc.). Advise need for doctor appointment if symptoms get worse. Remind patient of varicose vein management and self-care (e.g., keep active; use loose clothing, avoid standing/sitting for long periods, elevate legs when sitting, etc.).

Insulin injection Sample role play

OET Role play. Live transcript from Lifestyle Training Centre.

Nurse (Sophia): Hi, Jo. I’m Sophia, one of the registered nurses from the nearby community health centre. How are you doing this morning?

Patient (Jo): I’m fine.

Nurse (Sophia): That’s wonderful, happy to hear. And from your records, I understand that you have been suffering from diabetes, am I right?

Patient (Jo): Yes.

Nurse (Sophia): Okay. I’m sorry but how have you been managing your condition?

Patient (Jo): Yeah, I was taking medicines from the starting of my diagnosis of diabetes. Okay, and also with that, I’m controlling with the diet.

Nurse (Sophia): You are controlling with the diet, and I have news for you. According to your doctor, it is time for you to move to insulin injections. How does that sound?

Patient (Jo): Why should I take injections? Because I am perfectly okay with my medicines.

Nurse (Sophia): I totally understand that. Actually, I’m here to show you how to administer these insulin injections. And to answer your question, it’s been reported that you have been suffering from high blood sugars recently. Is that right?

Patient (Jo): Yeah, last visit. Doctor told me that my blood sugar is high. That’s right.

Nurse (Sophia): So that’s the reason why the doctor has decided that you start taking insulin injections. Is that part clear?

Patient (Jo): Yeah, I totally understood, but can you control it with the medication, more doses, or something? Because I’m afraid to take an injection. I don’t want to get injected.

Nurse (Sophia): I totally understand that. I mean, it’s not a pleasant thing to inject yourself, but there is no need to be alarmed. Insulin administration is an easy procedure. And to answer your question whether you can continue with the oral medications or other practices. At present, according to the doctor, it’s advisable that you move to insulin injections. If it didn’t require, the doctor wouldn’t have advised you to do so. Can I proceed and explain to you about insulin injections? Is that okay?

Patient (Jo): Yeah, sure.

Nurse (Sophia): Let me explain it to you very clearly so that you can follow me. First of all, we’ll provide you with all the resources that you can administer injection by yourself. Good thing is that unlike the regular needles, insulin needles are very thin, and it won’t even hurt you. You can just administer by yourself. You can administer on your belly, also on your shoulders or on your thigh, but make sure that you do not administer the injection on the same site every day. How does that sound?

Patient (Jo): Okay, yeah, it’s great.

Nurse (Sophia): Yes, it won’t pain you at all; it will be a mild discomfort, but you’ll be able to manage and you will get used to it.

Patient (Jo): Okay, I’m happy to hear that it will not be. Sure it is. It’s not a complicated thing, but yeah, please tell me, is it okay that I will inject or I have to come to the community health centre?

Nurse (Sophia): You can come to the community health centre. You’re welcome to, but there is no need to do that. Usually, everyone is advised to do it by themselves if they suffer from this condition, so we can just do it at home. As I explained before.

Nurse (Sophia): You know, you can just administer it by yourself. I can show you as soon as we finish our conversation. If you feel comfortable, you can start doing it by yourself.

Patient (Jo): So if I feel okay, I will try my best.

Nurse (Sophia): Sure, one more thing. I would like to explain to you about the disposal of these needles. Please make sure that once you inject yourself. I’ll provide you with a container. Please deposit the needles into this container, and once it is full, I’ll come and collect. Just let me know, okay?

Patient (Jo): Okay, I do.

Nurse (Sophia): Is there anything else you would like to ask me so far?

Patient (Jo): I understood everything; I will try to do what you explained.

Nurse (Sophia): That’s wonderful. I’ll go ahead and administer to you the insulin and show you how to do it so that you can follow it. And whenever you have any doubt, just give me a call. I’ll provide you with my number. And to summarise our conversation, you’ve been suffering from diabetes, and according to the doctors, it’s time for you to switch over to insulin. And we have discussed the reasons why. As your sugar level is high, it is time. And we have also discussed about how to administer insulin. Please remember you can administer by yourself on your belly, on your shoulders, or on your thighs. Please remember not to administer on the same location, same place every day. Please change the location, so that it will be good for you. And. Please remember to safely deposit the needles to this in this container so that it will not hurt anybody. And in time, I’ll come and collect it from you. And if you need any help, please, always you can just give me a call. Thank you. It was nice talking to you, John. Now, thank you. Now, I will show you how to administer the medication by yourself, okay?

Obstetric Ultrasound OET reading

TEXT A: An ultrasound scan, also referred to as sonography, uses high frequency sound waves to create an image of some part of the inside of the body, such as the stomach or muscles, by bouncing sound energy off tissue and translating the returning sound information into a visual representation. The word “ultrasound”, in physics, refers to all sound with a frequency humans cannot hear; in diagnostic ultrasound this is usually between 2 and 10 MHz. Higher frequencies provide better quality images, but are more readily absorbed by the skin and other tissue, so they cannot penetrate as deeply as lower frequencies. Lower frequencies can penetrate deeper, but the image quality is inferior. Obstetric ultrasound is performed routinely in most U.S. medical communities at about 20 weeks of gestation. Benefits include accurate dating, placental location, the diagnosis of multiple gestation or congenital abnormalities and the possible detection of maternal health risks.

TEXT B: Abstract: Implementing a obstetric ultrasound training program in rural Africa
Objective: To evaluate the feasibility and sustainability of basic obstetric ultrasound training in rural Africa. Methods: An 8-week training course, led by UK-based sonographers, was supported by training videos and followed by 10 months of remotely supported scanning in Mandimba, Mozambique. Data were collected using an Android tablet and the EpiCollect web application.
Results: The study group included 1744 pregnant women: 804 scanned by trainees under direct supervision and 940 scanned by trainees alone. Ultrasound identified 36 (2.1%) twin pregnancies, 230 (13.2%) breech presentations, 83 (4.8%) transverse presentations, and 22 (1.3%) cases of placenta previa. The detection rates for the above features were similar in the 2 groups. A subgroup of 230 (13.2%) women had a follow-up scan and 62 (3.6%) were referred to a doctor; 21 of these women required cesarean delivery.
Conclusion: Ultrasound training in a rural setting supported remotely is feasible and sustainable. It can help local healthcare workers to screen their prenatal populations for obstetric and neonatal risks, and therefore has the potential to improve outcomes at delivery and provide site specific epidemiologic data that can be used to develop new healthcare provision strategies.

TEXT C: The Role of Obstetric Ultrasound in Low Resource Settings
Poor maternal and child health (MCH) outcomes are a global, yet highly preventable problem. Evidence informs that the developing world accounts for the majority of the maternal mortality burden. Half a million women died of complications related to pregnancy in 2005, half of these in Africa and another third in South East Asia. Infant mortality is closely related and the trend is similar. About 3.1 million babies died before 28 days of age with 99% of these deaths occurring in middle- and low-income countries. Maternal mortality is the health indicator that shows the widest gap between rich and poor, both between and within countries. In Africa the maternal mortality ratio is 620 per 100,000 live births compared to 14 per 100,000 live births in developed countries. Within countries there are also disparities between urban and rural populations, with rural areas suffering worse outcomes. The potential to reduce maternal and neonatal deaths through the use of ultrasound is significant and addresses two of the millennium development goals (MDGs) including (i) MDG 4 which aims to reduce child mortality and (ii) MDG 5 which aims to improve maternal health. Improving the level of obstetric care is critical to address MCH outcomes and to accelerate progress toward achieving MDG 4 and 5 targets.

TEXT D: “Entertainment” Ultrasound Examinations
It has been proposed that natural-appearing 3-D ultrasound images of the fetus could improve parent fetal bonding. Given the recognized importance of maternal-child bonding immediately postpartum, it seems reasonable that extending this bonding experience into the fetal period could be beneficial. However, a psychological benefit of viewing fetal photos has not been proven, and obtaining such images largely remains in the realm of “entertainment”. In some countries, parents are able to enter a photography studio with ultrasound facilities and leave with pictures suitable for framing: no physician involvement is needed for this event. The use of ultrasound for non-diagnostic purposes has been condemned by the American Institute of Ultrasound in Medicine and the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists. Concerns that were raised in their policy statements include possible adverse bio-effects of ultrasound energy, the possibility that an examination could give false reassurance to women, and the fact that abnormalities may be detected in settings where personnel are not prepared to discuss and provide follow-up for concerning findings.
Questions 1-7. For each question, 1-7, decide which text (A, B, C or D) the information comes from. You may use any letter more than once. In which text can you find information about

1. alternative name for professionals who do ultrasound scan?
2. benefits of obstetric ultrasound scan?
3. benefits of three-dimensional ultrasound images?
4. places which recorded high maternal mortality?
5. who condemned non-diagnostic uses of ultrasound?
6 who conducted the study in rural Africa?
7 differences among countries regarding maternal mortality?

Questions 8-15. Answer each of the questions, 8-15, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts. Each answer may include words, numbers or both.
8. What is the maximum frequency limit of diagnostic ultrasound?
9. What does ‘MDG’ stand for based on the information given in the texts?
10. How many participants were there in the study conducted in rural Africa?
11. What type of frequencies travel more into human body?
12. Which millennium development goal aim to reduce maternal mortality?
13. What is the alternate term for ultrasound scan?
14. What is the maternal mortality ratio in comparison with live births in developed nations?
15. How many transverse presentations were identified in the study conducted in rural Africa?

Questions 16-20. Complete each of the sentences, 16-20, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts. Each answer may include words, numbers or both.
16. in a hinterland backdrop, which is assisted remotely is very practical.
17. The adverse bio-effects of ultrasound energy is a major brought up by the American Institute of Ultrasound in Medicine.
18. Advancements in is vital to eliminate the adverse outcomes of MCH globally.
19. can penetrate through skin and provide superior image quality.
20. The significance of is identified as essential, soon after the fetal period.

PART B. For questions 1-6, choose the answer (A, B or C)

1. This extract informs us that multidisciplinary care is
A. essential to tackle the increasing complexness of the residents care needs.
B. enhancing the resident’s quality of life to meet the needs of residents.
C. providing an integrated team approach by addressing the problems.
Multidisciplinary Care: Given the increasing complexity of the resident’s care needs combined with the call for a palliative approach to care delivery suggests that the adoption of a multi-disciplinary team approach to care planning and delivery is required. Multidisciplinary care is the vehicle for providing an integrated team approach to the provision of health care and this occurs when medical, nursing and allied health professionals consider all treatment options, including all of the potential benefits and disadvantages of treatment decisions, personal preferences of the resident and collaboratively develop an individual care plan that best meets the needs of each resident and their family. There is compelling evidence to suggest that a multi-disciplinary approach to care helps to enhance the resident’s quality of life by addressing the problems that are of most concern to the residents are addressed, reduces ambiguity around treatment and the goals of care, ensures that care decisions are based on best evidence-based practice.

2. What is being described in this section of the guidelines?
A. changes in protocols.
B. best practice protocols.
C. exceptions to the protocols.
Protected Health Information: Employees access our office via main entrance or employee entrance. Main entrance is locked after hours and is unlocked each morning at 8:00. The Office Manager has the key to both entrances and is responsible for unlocking main entrance each AM. Employee entrance is accessed only via key. Employees or service personal may gain entrance through the employee entrance by knocking on the door. All patients’ protected health information (PHI) regardless of its form, mechanism of transmission, or storage is to be kept confidential. Only individuals with a business need to know are allowed to view, read, or discuss any part of a patient’s PHI. An employee who violates this confidentiality policy will be subject to sanctions up to immediate termination. All employees are required to verify in writing that they have read and will comply with our policy regarding confidentiality of all forms of PHI. Employees whose job functions require access to our computer system will be given a secure, unique password to access the system.

3. The carcinogenicity potential should be assessed for
A. all medical devices with direct human contact.
B. reviewing the carcinogenicity of novel materials.
C. all medical devices with lasting human contact.
Carcinogenicity: Carcinogenicity potential should be evaluated for devices with permanent contact. This includes devices in contact with breached or compromised surfaces, as well as externally communicating and implanted devices. If novel materials are used to manufacture devices in contact with breached or compromised surfaces, externally communicating devices, or implant devices, we also recommend a review of the carcinogenicity literature. In the absence of experimentally derived carcinogenicity information, structure activity relationship modeling for these materials may be needed regardless of the duration of contact, to better understand the carcinogenicity potential for these materials. Because there are carcinogens that are not genotoxins and carcinogenesis is multifactorial, the assessment of carcinogenicity should not rely solely on genotoxicity information.

4. According to the extract, the best way to address the biocompatibility of a device is through
A. clinical testing
B. clinical studies
C. clinical experience
Clinical experience: Clinical experience should be considered in the overall benefit-risk profile for the device where the totality of the data available for the device may inform whether more testing is needed, or if any testing is needed at all. For example, clinical experience may be useful to mitigate problematic findings in an in vitro biocompatibility. In other cases, testing to address long-term biocompatibility endpoints may not be necessary if the patient’s life expectancy in the intended use population is limited. Generally, clinical studies are not sufficiently sensitive to identify biocompatibility concerns. Clinical or sub-clinical symptoms that result from the presence of a non- biocompatible material may not be identifiable, or may result in symptoms that are indistinguishable from the disease state such that the clinical data may not be informative to the biocompatibility evaluation. For example, blood vessel occlusion at the site of an implanted stent could be indicative of a toxic response to the stent materials or be related to damage to the stent during implantation.

5. Which is not an alternate term for a medical committee?
A. drug and medicine committee.
B. pharmacy and therapeutics committee.
C. medicine and therapeutics committee.
Drugs in Hospital: A hospital exists to provide diagnostic and curative services to patients. Pharmaceuticals are an integral part of patient care. Appropriate use of medicines in the hospital is a multidisciplinary responsibility shared by physicians, nurses, pharmacists, administrators, support personnel, and patients. A medical committee, sometimes called the drug and therapeutics committee, pharmacy and therapeutics committee, or the medicine and therapeutics committee, is responsible for approving policies and procedures and monitoring practices to promote safe and effective medicine use. The pharmacy department, under the direction of a qualified pharmacist, should be responsible for controlling the distribution of medicines and promoting their safe use. This task is challenging because medicines are prescribed by physicians, administered by nurses, and stored throughout the hospital. The control of narcotics is of particular concern in the hospital setting and requires a systematic approach for the prevention and detection of abuse.

6. What point does the extract make about known genotoxins?
A. can assume a positive result for the devices containing genotoxic materials.
B. cannot absolutely negate the negative results for other device components.
C. overall benefit-risk determined by device indication and human exposure.
Genotoxicity: Genotoxicity testing may be waived if chemical characterization of device extracts and literature references indicate that all components have been adequately tested for genotoxicity. Genotoxicity testing may not be informative for devices containing materials already known to be genotoxic assumed to be due to the known genotoxin. Thus, a second genotoxin from another source may be overlooked. If genotoxicity testing is performed, a negative result should be interpreted as a negative for the other device components or interaction products, but does not necessarily negate the risk of the known genotoxin. Chemical characterization may be needed to demonstrate to what extent the genotoxin is released from the device. For known genotoxins, the overall benefit-risk determination will depend on the device indication and human exposure. Genotoxicity testing is requested when the genotoxicity profile has not been adequately established.

PART C. TEXT 1: EYE DAMAGES IN DIVERS Choose (A, B, C or D)

An investigation of the circulation of blood in the eyes of divers has produced the strongest evidence yet that tissue damage is caused by diving is more common and more severe than previously thought. Researchers from Moorefield’s Eye Hospital in London and Maurice Cross of the Diving Diseases Research Centre in Plymouth examined the retinas of 80 divers of varying experience. The researchers found evidence of damage in nearly half the divers. Although the damage tended to increase with diving experience some of the divers developed it within two years of diving. The study is the first evidence of damage to the eye tissue in amateur divers and it suggests for the first time that a career in diving almost inevitably leads to damage of the 26 professional divers studied all had abnormal retinas. None of the divers taking part in the study had visual problems as a result of their damaged retinas but Bird said that he “would not be surprised to find divers whose damage has progressed far enough to affect their vision”.

Evidence has mounted during recent years to show that exposure to pressure during diving subtly damages the central nervous system. Doctors believe that the damage is due to obstruction in the flow of blood through the tissues. People who take up diving as a sport know they are at risk of getting “the bends” or an air embolism, but if they follow the correct procedures the risk is very low. All professional divers know they also run the risk of bone necrosis. About 5 per cent of them develop small dead patches in their bones. Active professional divers have the bones of their thighs and upper arms x-rayed as part of their annual medical examination. Doctors have been concerned that if diving caused dead patches to appear on bones, other tissues may be suffering a similar fate. Their concern increased in the early 2000s, when detailed neurological examinations and tests of the memory and reactions of experienced professional divers suggested that some of them might have slight damage to the brain and spinal cord.

Then, in 2006, nuclear magnetic resonance imaging revealed small areas of damage in the brains of apparently healthy North Sea divers. The following year Ian Calder, a pathologist at the London Hospital in the city’s East End, published the results of a postmortem study of eleven professional divers. Seven of them had areas of damage in the spinal cord that had not been detected while the divers were alive. The samples were too small for researchers in the studies to draw conclusions as to how common such damage might be. The fact that few divers are currently complaining of neurological symptoms does not mean that they will not experience problems later in life. There is a great deal of extra capacity in the nervous system of young people that begins to diminish in middle age. Most people who have dived deeper than 50 meters are still relatively young. Deeper diving did not become common until the mid-1970s when drilling for offshore oil began in the deeper water of the North Sea. Over the same period recreational diving became more popular and the amateur divers began to go deeper.

In order to determine the size of the problem, the researchers needed a method of looking for the damage in a large sample of divers that did not involve surgery. The damage which occurs in the tissue of both the bones and the nerves of divers is similar. Minute areas of tissue had died, probably because they had been starved of blood, suggesting that capillaries that supplied blood to the areas had been blocked. The bone necrosis of divers closely resembles that seen in victims of sickle-cell anemia whose capillaries are temporarily blocked during a sickle-cell “crisis” when their red blood cells become too rigid to pass through. Sickle-cell disease damages the retina which doctors can see using the technique known as retinal angiography. The process involves injecting Fluorescein dye into the blood stream and photographing the back of the eye through the pupil. The technique can provide a detailed photograph of the two vascular systems supplying blood to their retina without causing too much discomfort to the patient.

The researchers used retinal angiography to assess the tissue damage in divers. The abnormalities that they detected in the angiograms of divers were very similar to those seen in sickle-cell disease. There was clear evidence of obstruction to the capillaries. The researchers suggested three mechanisms to explain how diving causes this obstruction. When divers come back to the surface air bubbles sometimes form in their veins and their lungs. If bubbles also form in the arteries, they would block the capillaries. Bubbles forming in the lungs trigger changes in the body’s clotting mechanism which could result in minute clots becoming trapped in the capillaries.
The third suggestion is that the mechanism might also be similar to that of sickle-cell disease. The pressure that divers experience at 30 meters causes their white blood cells to become rigid just as red blood cells do during a sickle-cell crisis. The researchers hope that clues to the cause of the obstruction will come from investigations into the individual differences between divers. Some of the divers studied had relatively little damage even though they had been diving for many years and done a great deal of deep diving. On the other hand, a few inexperienced divers had quite extensive damage.

7. According to the article,
A. low blood pressure can cause eye problems in divers.
B. diving is becoming more and more dangerous.
C. eyes can be severely harmed as a result of diving.
D. many divers experience approximately 50% vision loss.
8. The study suggests that
A. divers should have at least two years of experience..
B. experienced divers can avoid the risk of eye damage.
C. professional divers are more careful than amateur divers.
D. none of the above.
9. Damage to the retina is caused by
A. obstructions to blood circulation.
B. loss of pigment in the epithelium.
C. pressure on the central nervous system.
D. all of the above.
10. Approximately 5 per cent of professional divers
A. develop bone necrosis.
B. have annual bone x-rays.
C. get the ‘bends’.
D. are nervous when diving.
11. All of the following were used by doctors to examine the health of practicing divers except
A. nuclear magnetic resonance imaging.
B. post-mortem examinations.
C. memory tests and reaction tests.
D. neurological examinations.
12. Which of the following statements is true according to the article?
A. Small dead patches always develop in divers’ bones.
B. Brain damage is common among North Sea divers.
C. Neurological problems may not be immediately apparent.
D. Spinal cord damage in divers is easily detected.
13. Which of the following is not true according to the article?
A. Sickle-cell anemia is a common disease among divers.
B. Neurological and bone tissue damage are similar.
C. Tissue damage of diver’s results from blockage of blood.
D. Researchers avoided the use of surgery in their investigations.
14. Retinal angiography
A. involves the injection of fluoroscein dye into the pupil.
B. provides graphic information about blood supply to retinas.
C. causes considerable discomfort to the patient.
D. none of the above.



PART C. TEXT 2: PLUMBISM

Paragraph 1: Plumbism is the technical term for lead poisoning, which represent a diseased condition, produced by the absorption of lead, common among workers in this metal or in its compounds, as among painters, typesetters, etc. Lead is a metal which is toxic to humans when ingested or inhaled. When lead enters the bloodstream, whether the route of entry is the lungs or the gastrointestinal tract, it is distributed to the tissues and organs of the body, including the brain, liver and kidneys. In the long term, lead is stored in the teeth and bones. Although it is excreted gradually (mostly in the urine, but also in feces, sweat, hair and nails), repeated exposure and absorption results in an accumulation of lead in the body. Cumulative doses of lead over time can result in chronic lead poisoning, while acute lead toxicity may be observed in cases of short-term, high-dose exposures.

Paragraph 2: A naturally occurring element, lead may be dispersed by natural processes such as erosion, volcanic eruptions and forest fires. Overwhelmingly, however, hazardous human exposure to lead is due to its release into the environment through industrial processes, and to the widespread use of lead-containing products, most notoriously petrol, paints, and plumbing and building materials. Many everyday household items including adhesives, batteries, ceramics, glassware and children’s toys may also contain lead, particularly if manufactured in the twentieth century. Other items that have traditionally contained lead include bullets and radiation shields. Industrial sources of lead contamination of soil, water and air include mining and smelting of lead and lead- containing ore, car manufacture and combustion of large quantities of fuels such as coal in the generation of electricity. The leading cause of lead poisoning among adults is occupational exposure, particularly for those working in the industries previously mentioned.

Paragraph 3: To alleviate the incidence of environmental exposure due to contact with building materials and other products containing lead, industry guidelines and government legislation have been introduced in many countries: drinking water is no longer prone to lead contamination where alternatives to lead pipes and lead-soldered fittings, roofs and water tanks are required in new houses; maximum allowable lead content in domestic paint is now specified in a growing number of jurisdictions; and the last two decades or so have seen leaded petrol banned in most countries around the world. However, exposure to lead particles is still a significant health risk due to the lingering contamination of soil and dust from past fuel emissions, from continuing industrial exposure, and from contact with older lead-based products still in use.

Paragraph 4: Even small quantities of lead taken into the body are considered hazardous to human health. Adverse systemic effects can extend to the neurological, cardiovascular, gastrointestinal and renal. Damage caused by lead poisoning is known to be irreversible in some cases, such as severe neuro-behavioral impairment resulting from acute intoxication. However, health outcomes are influenced by the timing, duration and amount of exposure (or dosage), and by how much accumulation has occurred. Among the available biological markers of lead dose, blood lead levels provide a more accurate measure if there has been recent exposure to lead, while levels of lead in bone, measuring stored lead, are more accurate indicators of accumulation.

Paragraph 5: Among the most vulnerable to lead exposure and its effects are children under the age of six. Where lead is present in soil, dust, paint or toys, young children are at an increased risk of ingesting lead, as they may touch lead- based or contaminated materials with their fingers and mouths. A child’s body is also more susceptible to lead absorption -it has been estimated that a child’s body can absorb 50% of lead particles on exposure compared with only 10% for an adult’s. The likely health effects for young children are even more dire considering the vulnerability of the developing brain to permanent disadvantage as a result of the neurotoxicity of lead. Intelligence quota (IQ) deficit has been linked to neuro-toxic effects in children with lead blood levels as low as five micrograms per deciliter (5µg/dL). Less research has been conducted on the effects of lead exposure during prenatal development but, because lead is able to cross the blood brain barrier and the placenta, the risk of significant harm to the brain and to the developing fetus is a key concern. One study in Mexico led researchers to conclude that fetal neurodevelopment is adversely affected by lead exposure and particularly so during the first trimester of pregnancy.

Paragraph 6: Studies suggest that chronic lead toxicity in individuals could change behavior and cognitive function and even trigger psychosocial disturbances that contribute to aggressive behavior. One study observed a significant decline in rates of violent crime throughout the 1990s in the United States, a country where the use of leaded petrol was phased out during the 1970s. The researchers hypothesized that this change in crime rate is attributable to a reduction of childhood exposure to lead in the decades prior to the 1990s. Studies like this one, which documents an association between childhood lead exposure and criminal behavior in adults, are supported by findings that some adolescent criminals have blood lead levels quadrupling the average among teenagers. Despite these alarming health effects, the World Health Organization has described lead poisoning as a completely preventable disease.

15. Based on the first paragraph, lead
A. is excreted completely from the human body.
B. accumulates mainly in the lungs and intestines.
C. can be taken into the body through the skin.
D. moves about the body via blood circulation.
16. Which is the most likely source of lead poisoning in humans?
A. Exposure in the workplace.
B. A contaminated water supply.
C. Common household items.
D. Medical imaging procedures.
17. Legislation in many countries has resulted in
A. lead pipes being replaced in all housing.
B. petrol being produced without added lead.
C. the use of leaded paint being made illegal.
D. drinking water being guaranteed lead free.
18. The third paragraph describes
A. measures taken to reduce levels of lead in the environment.
B. the elimination of lead contamination in some countries.
C. twenty years of legislation restricting the use of lead.
D. difficulties in removing lead from construction sites.
19. The effects of lead in a person’s body
A. are not easy to observe.
B. cannot be reversed.
C. sometimes cause death.
D. depend on several factors.
20. The preferred method for measuring lead levels in the body depends on
A. how old the person is.
B. how sick the person is.
C. how intense the exposure was.
D. how long ago the exposure was.
21. Young children are at greater risk of lead poisoning than adults due to
A. the continuing presence of lead in children’s toys.
B. their more frequent exposure to contaminated materials.
C. a higher capacity for lead absorption into their bodies.
D. the increased retention of lead in developing brains.
22. In sixth paragraph research links a fall in incidents of violent crime to
A. environmental changes during the 1990s.
B. reduced exposure to lead in the workplace.
C. behavioral changes from lead poisoning.
D. the widespread use of unleaded petrol.

How did it go? Please share your feedback in the comment section below:
Do you need a copy of this test? Download/Print PDF

Show answers
Obstetric Ultrasound

PART A: QUESTIONS 1-20

1.         B

2.         A

3.         D

4.         C

5.         D

6.         B

7.         C

8. 10 MHz

9. millennium development goals

10. 1744

11. lower frequencies

12. MDG 5

13. sonography

14. 620 per 100,000

15. 83

16. Ultrasound training

17. concern

18. obstetric care

19. Higher frequencies 20. maternal-child bonding

PART B: QUESTIONS 1-6

1. A essential to tackle the increasing complexness of the residents care needs,

2. B best practice protocols.

3. C all medical devices with lasting human contact.

4. C clinical experience

5. A drug and medicine committee.

6. C overall benefit-risk determined by device indication and human exposure.

PART C: QUESTIONS 7-14

7. C

8. D

9. A

10. A

11. D

12. C

13. B

14. B

PART C: QUESTIONS 15-22

15. D moves about the body via blood circulation.

16. A Exposure in the workplace.

17. D drinking water being guaranteed lead free.

18. A measures taken to reduce levels of lead in the environment.

19. D depend on several factors.

20. D how long ago the exposure was.

21. B their more frequent exposure to contaminated materials.

22. D the widespread use of unleaded petrol.

MANAGEMENT OF BURNS OET reading

Text A:

Burn depth: Burn injuries are classified according to how much tissue damage is present.
1 Superficial partial thickness burns (also known as first and second degree)
Present in most burn wounds. Injuries do not extend through all the layers of skin.
2 Full thickness burns (also known as third degree)
• Burn extends into the subcutaneous tissues
• Underlying tissue may appear pale or blackened
• Remaining skin may be dry and white, brown or black with no blisters
• Healing associated with considerable contraction and scarring.
3 Mixed depth burns: Burns are frequently of mixed depth. The clinician should estimate the average depth by the appearance and the presence of sensation.
Resuscitation should be based on the total of second and third degree burns, and local treatment should be based on the burn thickness at any specific site.

Text B
Fluid resuscitation

If the burn area is over 15% of the TBSA (Total Body Surface Area) in adults or 10% in children, intravenous fluids should be started as soon as possible on scene, although transfer should not be delayed by more than two cannulation attempts. For physiological reasons the threshold is closer to 10% in the elderly (>60 years).
Suggested regimen for fluid resuscitation Adults: Resuscitation fluid alone (first 24 hours)
• Give 3–4ml Hartmann’s solution (3ml in superficial and partial thickness burns/4ml in full
thickness burns or those with associated inhalation injury) per kg body weight/% TBSA burned. Half of this volume is given in the first 8 hours after injury and the remaining half in the second 16-hour period
Children: Resuscitation fluid as above plus maintenance (0.45% saline with 5% dextrose):
• Give 100ml/kg for the first 10kg body weight plus 50ml/kg for the next 10kg body weight plus 20ml/kg for each extra kg


Text C:

Management for Burns
1. Assess the patient status: airway, breathing, circulation, IV access.
2. Assess the burn depth and extent. A sheet can be placed on burns during this time.
3. Cooling: Remove jewellery or hot clothing. Limit inflammation and pain by using cool water, cool saline soaked gauze or a large sheet in the case of a large wound. Cool the wound not the patient, taking care not to cause hypothermia.
4. Pain Control: Acetaminophen usually helpful but may need to use opiates such as codeine.
5. Check immunization status and update tetanus if necessary.
6. If possible, begin fluid resuscitation.
7. Debridement of blisters – there are some differences of opinion regarding breaking of blisters.
a. Some suggest leaving intact because the blister acts as a barrier to infection and others debride all blisters.
b. Most agree that necrotic skin should be removed following blister ruptures.
8. Application of antibiotics in the form of ointment. Should always be used to prevent infection in any
non-superficial burns.
9. Apply suitable dressing to the wound area.


TEXT D. ADULT ANALGESIC GUIDELINES
The following table provides recommended short term (<72 hours) oral analgesia guidelines for the management of burn injuries. Aim for pain scores of 4 or less at rest. Analgesia should be reviewed after 72 hours and adjusted according to pain scores. Patient management should be guided by individual case and clinical judgement.

Pain score elicited from patient (Scale 1 – 10)
Mild Pain Pain Score 1 – 3Moderate Pain Pain Score 4 – 6Severe Pain Pain Score 7 – 10
Recommended analgesia:Recommended analgesia in addition to column 1:Recommended analgesia in addition to column 1 & 2:
Paracetamol 1g 4 x dailyTramadol 50 – 100mg 4 x dailyStrong opioids Oxycontin SR 10mg (2 x daily)
And if needed: Naproxen 250mg 2 x dailyIf above unsuccessful: Endone (immediate release oxycodone) 5 – 10mg (2 – 4 hourly)  Endone, 2 – 4 hourly as needed
 Review in 72 hoursReview in 72 hours If pain cannot be controlled with oral medications, consider admission to burns unit.

Paediatric Analgesia Guidelines

  • Paracetamol (15 mg/kg (max 90 mg/kg/day) orally or per rectum (PR))
  • Non Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs
    • naproxen 5 – 10 mg/kg (max 500 mg) 12-hrly orally or PR
    • ibuprofen 2.5 – 10 mg/kg (max 600 mg) 6-8hrly orally
  • Opioids (codeine 0.5 – 1 mg/kg orally)

Questions 1-5. For each question, 1-5, decide which text (A, B, C or D) the information comes from. You may use any letter more than once. In which text can you find information about
1 age-related considerations for initial treatment of burns injuries?
2 the risks involved in certain treatments?
3 when to start thinking about specialist treatment options?
4 treatment informed by patient self-assessment?
5 how to categorise the severity of a burn?
Questions 6-13. Complete each of the sentences, 6-13, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts. Each answer may include words, numbers or both.
6 Classification of burn injuries depends on the amount of ________ __________ caused.
7 Patients recovering from third degree burns are likely to experience a great deal of shrinkage and
__________________ of their skin.
8 When evaluating mixed depth burns, you should take into account how the burn looks and whether there is __________________in the affected area.
9 You should cool burn injuries by taking off any _______________or jewellery that the patient is wearing.
10 When cooling the wound, make sure that you don’t put the patient at risk of _________ .
11 The patient may require a __________________booster, depending on when they were last immunised.
12 You should consider leaving _____________________undisturbed, as these may help prevent infection.
13 You should apply ointments containing _________________________to all deeper burns.

Questions 14-20. Answer each of the questions, 14-20, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts. Each answer may include words, numbers or both.
14 In the case of mixed depth burns, what factor determines the local treatment to give?
15 What is the maximum number of tries recommended for attaching a drip at the scene of a burn’s incident?
16 How much resuscitation fluid should a child receive per kilo over 20kg?
17 Before attaching a fluid resuscitation drip to a 9-year-old burns patient, what percentage of the body
needs to be affected?
18 What additional analgesic is recommended in the first instance for a patient with a moderate level of pain?
19 What route should be used to administer ibuprofen to children?
20 After how long should a patient’s pain relief regime be re-evaluated?

PART B. Choose the correct option: A, B or C.

1. Doctors are advised to break patient confidentiality if
A. failure to do so would put other people in danger.
B. they inform the patient of their intention in advance.
C. a patient refuses to disclose information relevant to their care.
PATIENT CONFIDENTIALITY: Confidentiality is central to trust between doctors and patients. Without assurances about confidentiality, patients may be reluctant to seek medical attention or to give doctors the information they need in order to provide good care.
However, faced with a situation in which a patient’s refusal to consent to disclosure leaves others exposed to a risk so serious that it outweighs the patient’s and the public interest in maintaining confidentiality, or if it is not practical or safe to seek the patient’s consent, information should be disclosed promptly to an appropriate person or authority. The patient should be informed in advance that the doctor will be disclosing the information, provided this is practical and safe, even if the doctor intends to disclose without the patient’s consent.

2. According to the guidance notes, all staff involved in transferring patients from critical to general care must
A. obtain all necessary consent from any interested parties.
B. ensure that the patient’s personal care plan is also transferred.
C. make arrangements for ongoing co-operation once the transfer is complete.

TRANSFER OF PATIENTS:
1.15
The critical care area transferring team and the receiving ward team should take shared responsibility for the care of the patient being transferred. They should jointly ensure that:
• there is continuity of care through a formal structured handover from critical care area staff to ward staff (including both medical and nursing staff), supported by a written plan;
• the receiving ward, with support from critical care if required, can deliver the agreed plan.
1.16
When patients are transferred to the general ward from a critical care area, they should be offered information about their condition and encouraged to actively participate in decisions that relate to their recovery. The information should be tailored to individual circumstances. If they agree, their family and carers should be involved.

3. The memo says failure to screen a patient for malnutrition may result in
A. a change in overall health.
B. a prolonged stay at the care facility.
C. care providers being unaware of an issue.
Memo
To: Hospital staff
Re: Nutrition screening
This is to remind staff of the importance of nutrition screening to identify problems which may go unrecognised and, therefore, remain untreated during the patient’s hospital stay. Nutrition screening should occur on admission and then weekly during the patient’s episode of care; at least monthly in slower stream facilities; or if the patient’s clinical condition changes.
All patients should have their weight and height documented on admission, and weight should continue to be recorded at least weekly. Patients whose score is ‘at risk’ on a validated screening tool or whose clinical condition is such that their treating team identifies them as at risk of malnutrition should be referred to a dietitian for a full nutrition assessment and nutrition support as appropriate.

4. This policy document states that nurses
A. must sign a paper form if they want any new stock.
B. can order medicines from the pharmacy in some cases.
C. should speak to the pharmacist if a drug is needed urgently.

Stock requisitioning
If stock levels of a medicine are low, the nurse should firstly liaise directly with their ward-based team to arrange urgent stock replenishment. If the ward-based team is unavailable, the nurse should complete a request form online and email it to the pharmacy stores. Paper-based ordering systems are available
(e.g., the ward medicines requisition book); however, these should not be relied on if ward stock is urgently needed.
“At risk medicines” – Diazepam/Codeine Phosphate/Co-codamol – may only be ordered for stock when a paper requisition is written. Paper-based requisitions should be complete, legible and signed, and then sent to the pharmacy department.
Wards/clinical areas using Mediwell 365 cabinets will have orders transmitted automatically to Pharmacy
on a daily basis, as stock is used.

5. The extract from the guidelines states that
A. ICU staff can be seconded to other wards.
B. only a consultant can refer a patient to the ICU.
C. the ICU is fully responsible for a patient in their care.

6.2 Intensive Care Unit (ICU)
6.2.1 Unplanned admissions to the ICU need a referral at consultant level. In exceptional circumstances, referrals will be discussed with the Ward Registrar looking after the patient if a delay in referral to ICU would lead to the rapid deterioration of a patient.
6.2.2 All patients discussed with the ICU staff but not admitted remain under the care of the primary team and as such they remain responsible for reviewing and escalating care should deterioration occur.
6.2.3 We encourage collaborative patient-centred care. However, the ICU is defined as a closed unit. This means that when patients are admitted into the ICU, they are under the care of the ICU team. It is expected that members of the primary referring team will liaise daily with the ICU team to discuss the patient’s management. However, it is up to the ICU team to make final decisions.

6. When dealing with patients following a safety incident, staff must avoid
A. saying anything until the facts have been established.
B. speculating on the possible causes of the incident.
C. contradicting what has been said by other staff.

Patient safety Iincidents: Information about a patient safety incident must be given to patients and/or their carers in a truthful and open manner by an appropriately nominated person. Patients want a step-by-step explanation of what happened that considers their individual needs and is delivered openly. Communication must also be timely – patients and/or carers should be provided with information about what happened as soon as practicable. It is also essential that any information given is based solely on the facts known at the time. Healthcare staff should explain that new information may emerge as an incident investigation is undertaken, and patients and/or their carers will be kept up-to-date with the progress of an investigation. The Duty of Candour Regulations require that information be given as soon as is reasonably practicable and be given in writing no later than 10 days after the incident was reported through the local systems.

PART C. For questions 7-22, choose the answer (A, B, C or D)

According to paediatric immunology specialist Dr Velencia Soutter, around six to eight per cent of babies are affected by allergy. While most children will outgrow them, some actually grow into them. The mechanisms that provoke an allergy remain a grey area. Soutter says: ‘It’s like throwing a match into a fireworks factory. Hit the right place and you set off a chain reaction. Miss it and the match just fizzles out. That difference between lighting up or fizzling out isn’t well understood.’

Broadly speaking, Dr Soutter says the ideal recipe for a food allergy is to be born of allergic parents and then to have a high exposure to an allergenic foodstuff. But there are so many exceptions to this rule that other forces are clearly at work, and who’s to say what ‘high’ exposure is anyway? In contrast, the so-called hygiene hypothesis suggests too low an exposure to allergens is to blame. The idea is that today’s clean environments leave our immune systems with too little to do, encouraging them to turn on the wrong culprits. Clearly, the field of immunology has only just scratched the surface of understanding.

Interesting flakes of information are gradually being peeled off that surface, however. There is evidence that allergens can be transferred through a mother’s breast milk to her child, and possibly also through the placenta. Since the immaturity of babies’ immune systems might make them more vulnerable to an inherited allergic tendency, women in allergic families could be advised to avoid certain foods during pregnancy and breastfeeding. It is possible, though, that some allergies or intolerances are purely imaginary and this can also have consequences for children. One US study found that parents sometimes avoided foods to which they erroneously believed their children were allergic, occasionally leaving the children severely underfed.

In Australia, the number of people with genuine and severe allergies is growing. Some doctors speculate whether the increased amount of new chemicals in the environment and in food is perhaps damaging immune systems making them more prone to react adversely. Much more research needs to be done to provide evidence for that hypothesis. Anecdotally though, some experts say that staying off processed foods resolves the problem in a significant number of cases. Dr Soutter speculates that a rise in peanut allergy cases makes up the bulk of the increase in food allergies. Greater exposure has probably allowed more peanut allergies to flourish, she thinks. Peanut consumption per capita is rising. It’s a common ingredient in Asian and vegetarian dishes, which have grown in popularity, and the diet-conscious population is increasingly turning to nuts as a source of healthy fats.

Text 1: Questions 7-14
7. The case of Lucy Smith highlights the fact that food allergies
A. may be difficult to diagnose in certain people.
B. are relatively rare in the adult population.
C. can cause debilitating symptoms.
D. often require urgent treatment.
8. In the second paragraph, what point is made about food intolerances?
A. Scientists continue to disagree about their root causes.
B. The symptoms are indistinguishable from those of allergies.
C. They can have an unpredictable impact on the person affected.
D. The distinction between them and allergies is not widely appreciated.
9. The phrase ‘via a different biological mechanism’ in the third paragraph explains
A. the way the skin-prick test works in diagnosing food intolerances.
B. how the presence of food impurities impacts on the skin-prick test.
C. why the skin-prick test may not accurately diagnose food intolerance.
D. how food allergies are triggered by substances used in the skin-prick test.
10. Dr Soutter uses the image of a fireworks factory to illustrate that
A. the factors triggering an allergic reaction still remain unclear.
B. allergic attacks can occur suddenly any time in a person’s life.
C. it’s difficult to foresee which family member an allergy will affect.
D. the identification of a food allergy is basically a matter of chance.
11. In the fifth paragraph, what point is made about the two hypotheses mentioned?
A. They both appear to be credible.
B. They directly contradict each other.
C. They fail to define their terms adequately.
D. They should both be studied in more depth.
12. What does the phrase ‘this rule’ in the fifth paragraph refer to?
A. the likelihood of having an inherited allergy to certain foods
B. the type of diet in which food allergies more commonly occur
C. the degree of contact with allergens needed to trigger a reaction
D. the order of events most commonly found prior to allergic attacks
13. What does the sixth paragraph suggest about the transference of allergies between mother and child?
A. It is only possible with particular individuals.
B. It can result in instances of malnourishment.
C. It may be avoidable if certain precautions are taken.
D. It is most likely to take place before the baby is born.
14. Dr Soutter suggests that the rise in cases of one allergy may be partly due to
A. attempts to improve eating habits.
B. changes in food manufacturing methods.
C. the adoption of new agricultural practices.
D. increased levels of harmful substances in the atmosphere.

PART C. TEXT 2:
PRENATAL ORIGINS OF HEART DISEASE

Heart disease is the greatest killer in the developed world today, currently accounting for 30% of all deaths in Australia. A concept which is familiar to us all is that traditional risk factors such as smoking, obesity, and genetic make-up increase the risk of heart disease. However, it is now becoming apparent that another factor is at play – a developmental programming that is predetermined before birth, not only by our genes but also by their interaction with the quality of our prenatal environment.

Pregnancies that are complicated by sub-optimal conditions in the womb, such as happens during pre-eclampsia or placental insufficiency, enforce physiological adaptations in the unborn child and placenta. While these adaptations are necessary to maintain viable pregnancy and sustain life before birth, they come at a cost. The biological trade- off is reduced growth, which may in turn affect the development of key organs and systems such as the heart and circulation, thereby increasing the risk of cardiovascular disease in adult life. Overwhelming evidence in more than a dozen countries has linked development under adverse intrauterine conditions leading to low birth weight with increased rates in adulthood of coronary heart disease and its major risk factors – hypertension, atherosclerosis and diabetes.

The idea that a foetus’s susceptibility to disease in later life could be programmed by the conditions in the womb has been taken up vigorously by the international research community, with considerable efforts concentrating on nutrient supply across the placenta as a risk factor. But that is just part of the story: how much oxygen is available to the foetus is also a determinant of growth and of the risk of adult disease. Dr Dino Giussani’s research group at Cambridge University in the UK is asking what effect reduced oxygen has on foetal development by studying populations at high altitude.

Giussani’s team studied birth weight records from healthy term pregnancies in two Bolivian cities at obstetric hospitals and clinics selectively attended by women from either high-income or low-income backgrounds. Bolivia lies at the heart of South America, split by the Andean Cordillera into areas of very high altitude to the west and areas at sea-level to the east, as the country extends into the Amazon Basin. At 400m and almost 4000m above sea-level, respectively, the Bolivian cities of Santa Cruz and La Paz are striking examples of this difference. Pregnancies at high altitude are subjected to a lower partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere compared with those at sea- level. Women living at high altitude in La Paz are more likely to give birth to underweight babies than women living in Santa Cruz. But is this a result of reduced oxygen in the womb or poorer nutritional status?

What Giussani found was that the high-altitude babies showed a pronounced reduction in birth weight compared with low-altitude babies, even in cases of high maternal nutritional status. Babies born to low-income mothers at sea-level also showed a reduction in birth weight, but the effect of under-nutrition was not as pronounced as the effect of high altitude on birth weight; clearly, foetal oxygenation was a more important determinant of foetal growth within these communities. Remarkably, although one might assume that babies born to mothers of low socio- economic status at high altitude would show the greatest reduction in birth weight, these babies were actually heavier than babies born to high-income mothers at high altitude. It turns out that the difference lies in ancestry.

The lower socio-economic groups of La Paz are almost entirely made up of Aymara Indians, an ancient ethnic group with a history in the Bolivian highlands spanning a couple of millennia. On the other hand, individuals of higher socio-economic status represent a largely European and North American admixture, relative newcomers to high altitude. It seems therefore that an ancestry linked to prolonged high-altitude residence confers protection against reduced atmospheric oxygen.

Giussani’s group also discovered that they can replicate the findings observed in Andean pregnancies in hen eggs: fertilised eggs from Bolivian birds native to sea-level show growth restriction when incubated at high altitude, whereas eggs from birds that are native to high altitude show a smaller growth restriction. Moving fertilised eggs from hens native to high altitude down to sea-level not only restored growth, but the embryos were actually larger than sea-level embryos incubated at sea-level. The researchers could thereby demonstrate something that only generations of migration in human populations would reveal. What’s more, when looking for early markers of cardiovascular disease, the researchers discovered that growth restriction at high altitude was indeed linked with cardiovascular defects – shown by an increase in the thickness of the walls of the chick heart and aorta. This all suggests the possibility of halting the development of heart disease at its very origin, bringing preventive medicine back into the womb.


Text 2: Questions 15-22
15. What information can be found in the first paragraph?
A. reference to some recent findings relating to heart disease
B. indication of the greatest risk factor associated with heart disease
C. mention of a misconception about the chief causes of heart disease
D. figures showing the country with the highest mortality rate from heart disease
16. When the writer uses the word ‘cost’ in the second paragraph she is referring to
A. overwhelming evidence.
B. placental insufficiency.
C. viable pregnancy.
D. reduced growth.
17. In the third paragraph, what does the author suggest about the work of the international research
community on this subject?
A. Their focus has been too narrow.
B. Some of their studies may be flawed.
C. There is nothing original about their research.
D. They were overly keen to seize on a particular idea.
18. What was the aim of the study described in the fourth paragraph?
A. to compare neonatal records between the UK and Bolivia
B. to assess the relative significance of two risk factors for newborns
C. to find a link between birth weight and predisposition to heart disease
D. to determine the likelihood of high-altitude babies being carried to full term
19. What assumption was proved wrong by the results of the study?
A. Lower-income mothers generally give birth to lower weight babies.
B. A baby born at high altitude will typically weigh less than one born at sea level.
C. Levels of oxygen have a greater impact on birth weight than nutritional status does.
D. There is a correlation between prenatal oxygen levels and predisposition to heart disease.
20. In the sixth paragraph, what is suggested about the inhabitants of La Paz?
A. The altitude affects all socio-economic groups in a similar way.
B. There is a high degree of ethnic diversity at all levels of society.
C. Most residents have a shared ancestry going back two thousand years.
D. Poorer residents have a genetic advantage over those with higher incomes.
21. The purpose of the information in the sixth paragraph is to provide
A. an alternative approach to a puzzle.
B. a confirmation of a hypothesis.
C. an explanation for a finding.
D. a solution to a problem.
22. What advantage of the research involving hen eggs is mentioned in the final paragraph?
A. the availability of supplies
B. the simplicity of the procedure
C. the reliability of the data obtained
D. the speed with which results are seen

How did it go? Please share your feedback in the comment section below:

OET READING TESTS

LYMPHOEDEMA OET reading

TEXT A: Phenotyping childhood lymphoedema: Primary lymphoedema is chronic oedema caused by a developmental abnormality of the lymphatic system and is the most common type seen in the paediatric population. In primary lymphoedema, fluid accumulates due to either abnormal function or structure of the lymphatic system. In most cases, oedema will be present from birth but in some cases, although the lymphatic abnormality is presumed to be present congenitally, the swelling does not develop until sometime later. It is thought that the lymphatic system normally functions at about 10% capacity and it is presumed that this functional redundancy allows homeostasis to be maintained for some time in this group of patients. A population prevalence of 1.33 per 1000 for all ages has been reported but it is acknowledged that this is probably an under estimation of the true burden of disease. A specific prevalence figure for primary lymphoedema in the paediatric population has been estimated at 1.15 per 100,000 population, but these numbers are based on those attending a single US clinic. A female preponderance (M:F ± 1:3) is documented, although this may represent ascertainment bias. Primary impairment of the lymphatic drainage system will begin surfacing due to a non-syndromic mendelian condition or as majorly because of other undefined disorder.

TEXT B. Milroy disease: Milroy disease is congenital onset lymphoedema which, although rarely, transform limbs to the nth degree or portion below the knee to the toe partially but is not reported to affect the arms. Males and females are affected equally. In males, hydroceles are common, affecting up to 30% of those carrying the altered gene. Other characteristic clinical findings include upslanting `ski-jump` toenails and prominent large calibre veins in the legs, most commonly the great (long) saphenous veins. The causative gene was first located on chromosome 5q in 1998 and subsequently numerous causative mutations in the VEGFR3 gene have been described. In those individuals not conforming to the Milroy phenotype, molecular testing of VEGFR3 is not warranted. Inheritance of Milroy disease is autosomal dominant with a penetrance of approximately 85%. This is going to be troublesome for sure as there will be 50% children that might get it from parents who are carrying the genes. De novo mutations have been reported so a family history is not mandatory. For this reason, it is always worthwhile testing the parents of an affected child before calculating recurrence risks.

TEXT C. Lymphoedema distichiasis: Lymphoedema distichiasis syndrome is a very unusual, not-so-arcane, dominantly inherited condition for which the underlying genetic cause was identified by Fang et al. Almost all individuals with lymphoedema distichiasis syndrome have mutations in FOXC2. This condition is the association of primary, pubertal, or post-pubertal, onset lymphoedema with aberrant eyelashes arising from the Meibomian glands in the eyelids. Other associations include; cleft palate, congenital heart disease, varicose veins and ptosis. Half of affected individuals will have clinically evident varicose veins from an early age, while 100% have venous abnormalities when assessed by ultrasound scanning. A lymphoscintigram showing lymph reflux will necessitate the diagnosis of lymphoedema distichiasis. If distichiasis is not present in the patient or a family member, the chance of finding a mutation in the causative gene, FOXC2, is extremely unlikely. As distichiasis can be difficult to see, slit lamp examination by an ophthalmologist is advised wherever possible. Due to the increased risk of both cleft palate and congenital heart disease, additional pre-natal scans may be recommended for a fetus at risk of inheriting the condition.

TEXT D. Case Study: A 29-year-old woman with a history of renal cysts, hypertension and lymphoedema distichiasis syndrome, was referred to ophthalmology, with bilateral blurred vision, hyperaemia and ocular pain, developed over months. The patient had no positive family history for lymphoedema-distichiasis or other diseases. Clinical examination revealed stunted height (144 cm), neck webbing, bilateral and asymmetric lymphoedema, bilateral distichiasis and keratitis. Other ocular manifestations of lymphoedema-distichiasis, such as ptosis and strabismus, were excluded through ophthalmological examination.
The patient`s symptoms regressed with bilateral electrolysis of the abnormal follicles after unsuccessful attempts at epilation and follicle removal using an argon laser. Lymphoedema-distichiasis syndrome is a rare condition, associated with diminished quality of life, being linked with chronic keratitis, conjunctivitis and photophobia in 75% of cases.
Distichiasis, which may be present at birth, is observed in 94% of affected individuals. The FOXC 2 gene is the only gene in which mutations are known to cause lymphoedema distichiasis syndrome. Its protein has a role in a variety of developmental processes, such as formation of veins, lungs, eyes, kidneys, urinary tract, cardiovascular system and lymphatic vessels. Any pathogenic variant of this gene could lead to varicose veins, absence of lymphatic valves, lymphoedema, and cardiovascular and kidney malformations.
The patient did not have a family history for this syndrome. For this reason, lymphoedema-distichiasis syndrome in this case was a probable phenotypic manifestation of a de novo mutation in the FOXC 2 gene.

Questions 1-7. For each question, 1-7, decide which text (A, B, C or D) the information comes from. In which text can you find information about;
1. A rare disease condition, peculiarly begins at very early age.
2 .Diagnosis is based on the presence of primary lymphoedema and distichiasis.
3. Disorder is passed down (inherited) through families.
4. A condition characterized by an excess of watery fluid collecting in the cavities or tissues of the body.
5. It can be said that approximately 75% of affected individuals have an affected parent.
6. No proper statistics are available.
7. Classically affects lower half of the legs only.

Questions 8-14. Answer each of the questions, 8-14, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts.
8. What can occur as a part of more complex syndromic disorder? ______________
9. What is suggestive of a diagnosis of lymphoedema distichiasis? ______________
10. Which syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner? ______________
11. What is that Greek Word which may mean “Two Rows?” ______________
12. What is the percentage of recurrence risk for family members if one of the parents carries the gene?
13. Which Greek or Latin Word may mean “From The Beginning? ______________
14. Which syndrome can also present with cardiac abnormalities? ______________
QUESTIONS 15-20. Complete each of the sentences, 15-20, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts
15. ______________________ is possible even with more definitive treatment.
16. ______________________ are known to be affecting many of those with modified gene.
17. In absence of distichiasis, it could be difficult to find ______________ in the causative gene.
18. Conservative management of ______________is with lubrication or epilation.
19. ______________________ may not surface itself in an apparent way.
20. It is advisable that ____________shall undergo testing as this can minimize risk of transfer of genes



PART B. For questions 1-6, choose the answer (A, B or C)

1. As per information given in the table, to define NAFLD;
A. Evidence of hepatic steatosis both by histology and imaging is required.
B. Secondary causes of hepatic fat accumulation needed to be taken into consideration.
C. Monogenic hereditary disorder gets revealed.
NAFLD: In the majority of patients, NAFLD is commonly associated with metabolic comorbidities such as obesity, diabetes mellitus, and dyslipidemia. NAFLD can be categorized histologically into nonalcoholic fatty liver (NAFL) or non-alcoholic steatohepatitis. NAFL is defined as the presence of 5% HS without evidence of hepatocellular injury in the form of hepatocyte ballooning (e.g., ballooning), with or without any fibrosis. A not-so common form of monogenic disorder but the underlying genetic defect is expressed.

2. The notice is giving more information about;
A. Signs and symptoms.
B. Problems that might occur due to CMV.
C. The contagious nature of the virus.
Infected babies may have health problems that are apparent at birth or may develop later during infancy or childhood. Although not fully understood, it is possible for CMV to cause the death of a baby during pregnancy (pregnancy loss). Some babies may have signs of a congenital CMV infection at birth. These signs include:
• Premature birth, Liver, lung and spleen problems,
• Small size at birth, Small head size, and Seizures.
Babies with congenital CMV infection at birth may have long-term health
problems, such as: Hearing loss, Vision loss, Intellectual disability, Small head size etc.

3. What is right about risks, specific to Laparoscopic Splenectomy?
A. Swelling on the stomach.
B. May damage lungs completely.
C. Blood vessels may rupture.
Risks Involved: Injury to the tail of the pancreas, resulting in a collection of fluid in the abdomen that may require a further operation or drainage procedures. Bleeding from the blood vessels that flow to the spleen requiring a return to the operating theatre. Significant distention of the stomach that may lead to a large vomit. Occasionally some of this vomit may be inhaled into the lungs and cause life threatening pneumonia. This is why a tube will be placed via your nose into the stomach for the first day after the operation.
Splenunculi. Many people have tiny `extra` spleens. After the spleen is removed, they may grow and patients with blood diseases may have a recurrence of their
disease. This may require further surgery. Because the spleen is very close to the lung, collapse of the left lung, to some measure, is quite common after splenectomy. A physiotherapist will work with you to prevent this. It is very common to have a slight fever on the first 1 ± 2 days after the operation because of this lung collapse.

4. The report stresses more on;
A. Shows relatively small for GA
B. Mothers who had consultations more than three times outnumbered those who had consultations only twice or thrice.
C. Widespread prevalent of the infection.
The majority of the NB had adequate intrauterine growth (67.9%), while 26.9% were small for gestational age (SGA) and 5.2% were large for gestational age. Maternal age varied from 14 to 48 years (mean 25.8±7.3 years). More than 80% of the population of recently delivered mothers were married or had a stable relationship. Two hundred and thirty-seven (94.8%) of the 250 mothers had received some prenatal, with 175 attending four or more consultations and 62 from one to three.

5. The manual gives information about;
A. Asystole threshold rate
B. Detection rate
C. ECG operations
All ventricular fibrillation (VF) and ventricular tachycardia (VT) rhythms at or above this rate will be classified as shockable. All rhythms below this rate will be classified as non-shockable. This rate is programmable between 120 bpm (beats per minute) and 240 bpm via MDLink Software by the Medical Director. The default Detection Rate is 160 bpm
The asystole baseline-to-peak threshold is set at 0.08 mV. ECG rhythms at or below 0.08 mV will be classified as asystole and will not be shockable. The AED will detect noise artifacts in the ECG. Noise could be introduced by excessive moving of the patient or electronic noise from external sources like cellular and radio telephones. When noise is detected, the AED will issue the prompt “ANALYSIS INTERRUPTED. STOP PATIENT MOTION” to warn the operator. The AED will then proceed to reanalyze the rhythm and continue with the rescue.

6. What does the word sepsis mean?
A. Life-threatening complication arising due to infection.
B. Indicates release of chemicals into the bloodstream to fight the infection.
C. Higher death risk arising due to infection
Pediatric Trauma: The field has made major advances in the areas of sepsis, lung injury, traumatic brain injury and postoperative care. The pediatric intensive’s role in the Trauma Events is to give steady care during cardiorespiratory or multi-organ failure or recuperation from surgical medications or a traumatic injury that happens to an infant, child or adolescent. It manages the medicinal consideration of infants, children, and teenagers, and as far as possible as a rule ranges from birth up to 18 years old. It is a zone inside a healing center, spends significant time in the consideration of critically ill infants and children. The risk of death for injured children is significantly lower when care is provided in pediatric trauma, which focuses as opposed than non-pediatric trauma which is incorporated into the Critical Care Meetings.



PART C. TEXT1. For questions 7-22, choose the answer (A, B, C or D)
SEBORRHEIC ECZEMA

Seborrheic eczema, also known as seborrheic dermatitis, is a very common skin condition that causes redness often asymmetrically, scaly patches, and dandruff. It most often affects the scalp in an expeditious manner. It may, sometimes, begin to flourish in oily areas of the body, such as the face, upper chest, and back. It is hard to say how it may expand or who may get it – adults, children or newborn babies. When infants develop this condition, it`s known as crib cap; it typically develops within the first few weeks of life and gradually disappears over several weeks or months. The exact cause of seborrheic eczema isn`t known. However, doctors believe there are two main factors that can contribute to the development of the condition. The first factor is an overproduction of oil. An excess amount of oil in the skin might act as an irritant, causing the skin to become red and greasy. The second contributing factor is Malassezia, which is a type of fungus that`s naturally found in the skin`s oils. It can, sometimes, burgeon abnormally, causing the skin to secrete more oil than usual; the increased production of oil can lead to seborrheic eczema.

The condition might also develop in infants due to hormonal changes that occur in the mother during pregnancy. The fluctuating hormone levels are believed to stimulate the infant`s oil glands, leading to an overproduction of oil that may provoke this condition, begin to peeve the skin. Seborrheic eczema is a long-term skin condition that requires ongoing treatment. However, developing a good skin care routine and learning to recognize and eliminate triggers can help you manage the condition effectively. The symptoms of seborrheic eczema are often aggravated by various factors, including stress, change of seasons, and heavy alcohol use. The types of symptoms that thrive enormously can vary from person-to-person. It`s also possible for symptoms to occur in different parts of the body.

Seborrheic eczema tends to develop in oily areas of the body. It most often affects the scalp, but it can also occur in the following areas: in and around the ears, on the eyebrows, on the nose, on the back, on the upper portion of the chest etc. Seborrheic eczema has a distinct appearance and set of symptoms: skin develops scaly patches that flake off; the patches may be white or yellowish in color (this problem is commonly known as dandruff and it can occur in the scalp, hair, eyebrows, or beard); skin in the affected area tends to be greasy and oily; skin in the affected area may be red; skin in the affected area may be itchy; hair loss may occur in the affected area.

Doctors aren`t exactly sure why some people develop seborrheic eczema while others don`t. However, it does appear that it develops more quickly if a close family member has it. Other factors that contribute to its growth may include: obesity, fatigue, poor skin care, stress, environmental factors, such as pollution, the presence of other skin issues, such as acne etc. The symptoms are similar to those of other skin conditions, including rosacea. To make an accurate diagnosis, a doctor will perform a physical examination and carefully inspect the affected areas. The doctor may also want to perform a biopsy before making a diagnosis. During this procedure, the doctor will scrape off skin cells from the affected area; these samples will then be sent to a laboratory for analysis. The results will help to rule out other conditions that may be causing symptoms.

The doctor will likely recommend the patients to try some home remedies before considering medical treatments. Dandruff shampoos are frequently used to treat seborrheic eczema on the scalp; they usually need to be used every day for optimal results and it is important to follow all instructions on the bottle carefully. Other home treatments that may help manage seborrheic eczema include: using over-the counter (OTC) antifungal and anti-itch creams; using hypoallergenic soap and detergent; thoroughly rinsing soap and shampoo off the skin and scalp; shaving off a moustache or beard; and wearing loose cotton clothing to avoid skin irritation.

TEXT 1: QUESTIONS 7-14

7. According to paragraph 1, seborrheic eczema is;
A. Common among adults
B. Common among children
C. Common among newborn babies
D. Still a mystery to doctors
8 In paragraph 1, which medically-suitable word or phrase would mean growing or developing more in infection?
A. Asymmetrical
B. Burgeon
C. Flourish
D. Expand
9. According to paragraph 2, which one of the following statements is true about seborrheic eczema?
A. Infants may get this disease from their parents.
B. This disease occurs due to secretion of excess of oil by the oil glands, during pregnancy.
C. There is no specific treatment available for this disease.
D. This disease can spread to various parts of the body as well.
10. According to paragraph 2, which word would mean: to make a bad situation worse?
A. Provoke
B. Peeve
C. Aggravate
D. Thrive
11. Paragraph 3 talks more about ………
A. How the disease affects body parts.
B. How the symptoms develop.
C. How it can spread to other body areas.
D. Affected areas and symptoms.
12. In paragraph 3, flake off may mean.
A. to begin to fall
B. to come off a surface in small, thin pieces
C. to become more obvious
D. to begin to develop, usually on the surface
13. The most suitable heading for paragraph 4 is …………
A. Common symptoms of seborrheic eczema
B. Common symptoms and risk factors for eczema
C. Who is at risk for seborrheic eczema?
D. How is seborrheic eczema examined?
14. The most suitable heading for paragraph 5 is?
A. Treatment options for seborrheic eczema
B. Cost-effective management of seborrheic eczema
C. Common treatment procedures for home-based patients
D. How can you treat seborrheic eczema at home?

PART C. TEXT 2: FIBROMYALGIA

Fibromyalgia is a long-term or chronic disorder. It`s associated with widespread pain in the muscles and bones, areas of tenderness, and general fatigue. Symptoms like these are considered subjective. The lack of reproducible, objective tests for this disorder plays a role in some doctors questioning the disorder altogether.
Although it`s more widely accepted in medical circles now than previously, some doctors and researchers don`t consider fibromyalgia a de facto condition. This can increase risk of depression, which stems from a struggle in gaining acceptance for painful symptoms.

Researchers are closer to understanding fibromyalgia, so the stigma that surrounds the condition is disappearing. In the past, many doctors worried that people could use this undetectable pain as an excuse to seek out prescription pain medication. Doctors are now finding that lifestyle changes may be better than medication in treating and managing this condition. The more that doctors begin to accept this diagnosis, the more likely the medical community is to explore effective ways of treating fibromyalgia.

Fibromyalgia is often associated with areas of tenderness, which are called trigger points or tender points. These are places on your body where even light pressure can cause pain. Today, these points are rarely used to diagnose fibromyalgia. Instead, they may be used as one way for doctors to narrow their list of possible diagnoses. The pain caused by these trigger points can also be described as a constant dull ache affecting many areas of your body. If you were to experience this pain for at least three months, doctors may consider this a symptom of fibromyalgia. People with this disorder may also experience: fatigue, trouble sleeping, sleeping for long periods of time without feeling rested, headaches, depression etc.

A person used to be diagnosed with fibromyalgia if they had widespread pain and tenderness in at least 11 of the known 18 trigger points. Doctors would check to see how many of these points were painful by pressing firmly on them. Trigger points are no longer the focus of diagnosis for fibromyalgia. Instead, doctors may make a diagnosis if you report widespread pain for more than three months and have no diagnosable medical condition that can explain the pain. Medical researchers and doctors don`t know what causes fibromyalgia. However, thanks to decades of research, they`re close to understanding factors that may work together to cause it which include: Infections: Prior illnesses may trigger fibromyalgia or make symptoms of the condition worse. Fibromyalgia often runs in families. If you have a family member with this condition, your risk for developing it is higher.

Researchers think certain genetic mutations may play a role in this condition; those genes haven`t yet been identified. People who experience physical or emotional trauma may develop fibromyalgia. The condition has been linked with posttraumatic stress disorder. Like trauma, stress can create long-reaching effects your body deals with for months and years. Stress has been linked to hormonal disturbances that could contribute to fibromyalgia. Doctors also don`t fully understand the factors that cause people to experience the chronic widespread pain associated with the condition. Some theories suggest it may be that the brain lowers the pain threshold. Although the causes are unclear, fibromyalgia flare-ups can be the result of stress, physical trauma, or an unrelated systemic illness like the flu. It`s believed the brain and nervous system may garble or overreact to normal pain signals. This incorrect interpretation could be due to an imbalance in brain chemicals.

TEXT 2: QUESTIONS 15-22

15. In paragraph 1, what does the word subjective mean?
A. Something that requires fact
B. Illusory
C. Not easy to understand and explain
D. D Something that can`t be determined or measured by tests

16. According to paragraph 1, what do some doctors feel about fibromyalgia?
A. It is a serious condition
B. It is a condition that is difficult to examine
C. It is a condition that is not real
D. It is a condition which every patient finds difficult to accept

17. According to paragraph 2, which one of the following statements is true?
A. Doctors of the 21st century know more about this condition.
B. Doctors believe change in lifestyle can be more effective in managing the condition.
C. Doctors are still finding effective ways of treating this condition.
D. Researchers are working on developing new drugs for the treatment of this condition.

18. The most suitable heading for paragraph 3 is ………
A. What are the symptoms of fibromyalgia?
B. Trigger points are significant in the diagnosis of fibromyalgia.
C. The causal agents of fibromyalgia.
D. Common and uncommon symptoms of fibromyalgia.

19. The most suitable heading for paragraph 4.
A. Role of genetic mutation in fibromyalgia.
B. What are trigger points?
C. What causes fibromyalgia?
D. About trigger points and causal agents of fibromyalgia.

20. According to paragraph 4, which one of the following statements is true?
A. Doctors first check trigger points to identify the problem of fibromyalgia.
B. Fibromyalgia is a genetic disorder
C. Fibromyalgia is hard to detect
D. Doctors in the 21st century know more about how fibromyalgia occurs

21. According to paragraph 4, which one of the following statements is true?
A. Fibromyalgia is common among people who suffer from emotional trauma.
B. Stress is also one of the factors that often leads to fibromyalgia.
C. People who suffered long-term illness can develop fibromyalgia.
D. none of the above

22. The most suitable heading for paragraph 5 is.
A. Genetic Disorder
B. Who are at risk of developing fibromyalgia?
C. how fibromyalgia is caused?
D. common disease-growth indicators

We hope this information has been valuable to you. If so, please consider a monetary donation to Lifestyle Training Centre via UPI. Your support is greatly appreciated.

Would you like to undergo training for OET, PTE, IELTS, Duolingo, Phonetics, or Spoken English with us? Kindly contact us now!

📱 Call/WhatsApp/Text: +91 9886926773

📧 Email: [email protected]

🗺️ Find Us on Google Map

Visit us in person by following the directions on Google Maps. We look forward to welcoming you to the Lifestyle Training Centre.

Follow Lifestyle Training Centre on social media:

Thank you very much!

OET READING TESTS

JUNIOR SPORTS INJURIES OET reading

TEXT A. Title: Patters of injury in US high school sports: A review. OBJECTIVES: to characterize the risk of injury associated with 10 popular high school sports by c comparing the relative frequency of injury and selected injury rates among sports, as well as the participation conditions of each sport.

DESIGN AND SETTING: A cohort observational study of high school athletes using a surveillance protocol whereby certified athletic trainers recorded data during the 2016-2017 academic years.

SUBJECTS: Players listed on the school rosters for football, wrestling, baseball, field hockey, softball, girls’ volleyball, boy’s or girls’ basketball, and boy’s or girls’ soccer.

MEASUREMENTS: Injuries and opportunities for injury were recorded daily. The definition of reportable injury used in the study required that certified athletic trainers evaluate the injured players and subsequently restrict them from participation.

RESULTS: Football had the highest injury rate per 1000 athlete-exposures at 8.1, and girls’ volleyball had the lowest rate at 1.7. Only boys’ (59.3%) and  girls’ (57.0%) soccer showed a larger proportion  of reported injuries for  games than practices, while volleyball was the only sport to demonstrate a higher injury rate per  1000 athlete-exposures  for practices than for games.  More than 73% of the injuries restricted players for fewer than 8 days. The proportion of knee injuries was highest for girls’ soccer (19.4%) and lowest for baseball (10.5%). Among the studied sports, sprains and strains accounted for more than 50% of the injuries. Of the injuries requiring surgery, 60.3% were to the knee.

CONCLUSIONS:  An inherent risk of injury is associated with participation in high school sports based on the nature of the game and the activities of the players. Therefore, injury prevention programs should be in place for both practices and games. Preventing re-injury through daily injury management   is a critical component of an injury prevention program. Although sports injuries cannot be entirely eliminated, consistent and professional evaluation of yearly injury patterns can provide focus for the development and evaluation of injury prevention strategies.

Text B. Literature  review extract: Prevention  of  sports injuries.

… Langran and Selvaraj conducted a study in Scotland to identify risk factors for snow sports injuries. They found that persons under 16 years of age most frequently sustained injury, which may be attributed to inexperience. They conclude that protective wrist guards and safety release binding systems for ski-boards helps prevent injury to young or inexperienced skiers and snowboarders. Ranalli and Rye provide an awareness of the oral health care needs of the female athlete. They report that a properly fitted, custom­ fabricated or mouth-formed mouth-guard is essential in preventing intraoral soft tissue lacerations, tooth and jaw fractures and dislocations, and indirect concussions in sports.

Although custom-fabricated mouth-guards are expensive, they have been shown to be the 1nost effective and most comfortable for athletes to wear. Pettersen conducted a study to determine the attitudes of Canadian rugby players and coaches regarding, the use of protective headgear. Although he found that few actually wear headgear, the equipment is known to prevent lacerations and abrasions to the scalp and may minimize the risk of concuss10n.

Text C. Best practice guidelines for junior sports injury management and return to play

When coaches, officials, sports first aiders, other safety personnel,  parents and participants follow the safety guidelines the risk of serious injury is minimal. If an injury does occur, the golden rule in managing it is “do no further damage”. It is important that the injured participant is assessed and managed by an appropriately qualified person such as a sports first aider or sports trainer. Immediate management approaches include DRABCD (checking Danger, Response, Airway, Breathing, Compression and Defibrillation) and RICER NO HARM (when an injury is sustained apply  Rest, Ice, Compression,  Elevation, Referral and NO Heat, Alcohol, Running  or Massage). Young participants returning to activity too early after an injury are more susceptible to further injury. Before returning to participation the participant should be able to answer yes to the following questions:

•       Is the injured area pain free?

•       Can you move the injured part easily through a full range of movement?

•       Has the injured area fully regained its strength?

Whilst serious head injuries are uncommon in children and young peoples’ sport, participants who have lost consciousness or who are suspected of being concussed must be removed from the activity. Prior to returning to sport or physical activity, any child who has sustained an injury should have medical clearance.

Text D. Research briefs on sports injuries in Canada

• Approximately 3 million children and adolescents aged 14 and under get hurt annually playing sports or participating in recreational activities.

• Although death from a sports injury is rare, the leading cause of death from a sports-related injury is a brain injury.

• Sports and recreational activities contribute to approximately 18 percent of all traumatic brain injuries among Canadian children and adolescents.

• The majority of head injuries sustained in sports or recreational activities occur during cycling, skateboarding, or skating incidents.

Part A. Questions 1-7. For each question, 1-7, decide which text (A, B, C or D) the information comes from. In which text can you find information about

1.  what does ‘DRABCD’ stands for? ___________________

2.  who conducted the study in Scotland to identify risk factors for snow sports injuries? _______________

3.  when does majority of head injuries sustained in sports or recreational activities occur? _____________

5.  who conducted the study among Canadian rugby players and coaches? _______________

6.  which game has highest injury rate in US high school sports?  _______________     

7.  what is the leading cause of death from a sports-related injury?  _______________

Questions   8-13. Answer each of the questions, 8-13, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts.

8.  What type of  injuries are rare in children and young peoples’    sport?

9.  Which equipment prevents  lacerations  and abrasions to the  scalp?

10.  Which  game has lowest injury rate in US high school   sports?

11.  Which type of injury required surgery among majority players in US high school sports?

12.  What is the  golden rule in managing  an  injury?

13.  what is the most effective and most comfortable protective gear for athletes?

Questions  14-20. Complete each of the sentences, 14- -20, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts. Each answer may include words, numbers or both.

14.  Majority of head injuries sustained in   sports or ___________________occur during cycling, skateboarding, or skating incidents.

15.  Preventing _____________________through daily injury management is a critical component of an injury prevention program.

16.  _____________________and safety release binding systems for ski-boards helps prevent injury to skiers and snowboarders.

17.  __________________showed a larger proportion of reported injuries for games than practices in US high school sports.

18.  Prior to returning to sport, any child who has sustained an injury should have__________________

19.  Injured participant should be assessed and managed by___________________

20.  Ranalli and Rye provide an awareness of    the oral health care needs of____________________

Part B. For questions 1-6, choose the answer (A, B or C)

Platelet function analyzer  100 system: It creates an artificial vessel consisting of a sample reservoir, a capillary, and a biologically active membrane with a central aperture coated with collagen plus ADP, or collagen plus epinephrine. The ·application of constant negative pressure aspirates the anticoagulated blood  of  the sample from the reservoir  through the capillary and the aperture. A platelet plug is formed which gradually  occludes the aperture and ultimately  the blood  flow through the aperture gradually decreases and eventually stops. The time needed  for blood  flow interruption is recorded.

1.      What does this manual  tell us about platelet  plug?

A.    obstruct the aperture and contain the blood flow

B.    occludes the  aperture  and  continues  the blood flow

C.    open the aperture and stops the blood flow

Mannequins: Mannequins are a great way to familiarise yourself with a new procedure and also maintain familiarity with a previously learnt procedure in a safe way. They are especially useful for infrequently performed, potentially dangerous procedures such as surgical chest drain insertion.  Mannequins  alone  are not  an acceptable substitute for multiple supervised procedures on ‘real’ patients. Other forms of substitute training include the use of animal models, which carries ethical implications, and high-fidelity simulation.

2.      The purpose  of  these notes about an mannequins  is to

A. introducing  a form of  substitute training.

B. give  guidance  on potentially  dangerous procedures.

C. recommend  a new procedure  in a safe way.

Logbooks and assessment forms: It is essential to keep a logbook of the practical procedures you perform. Many professions have mandatory logbooks for all trainees provided by their  governing  body. A logbook shows  not only the number · of procedures performed but also how frequently and under what circumstances. The logbook should not contain patients’ personal details, although unique identifiers (e.g. their hospital number) are permitted.

3.      The email is reminding  staff that log book  should not

A. contain the frequency  of  procedures perf armed

B. have any personal  details of  patients

C. have  any unique  identifiers of patients

Sterilization: Sterilization is the process that results in the killing of all microorganisms capable  of  reproduction,  including  spores, and to the irreversible inactivation of viruses and to killing medically significant worms and eggs,. Medical equipment and items intended for sterilization and pre-sterilization preparation are used in accordance with the manufacturer ‘s instructions.  For sterilization of medical equipment, the healthcare provider will create, document, implement and maintain a certified quality assurance system of sterilization, including the controlled release of the medical  equipment.

4.      The guidelines establish that the healthcare  professional  should

A. sterilize medical equipment according to manufacturer ‘s instructions

B. create, document, implement and maintain a certified quality assurance  system

C. kill all microorganisms capable of reproduction, including spores

Hand washing procedure:

• Rinse hands with  water.

• Apply enough soap to cover the entire surface of  the hands, using  a small amount of water to create the   foam.

• Wash hands  for at least 30 seconds.

• Rinse hands under  the running  water.

• Carefully dry the hands with  a disposable  towel.

• Avoid using hot water; repeated skin exposure to hot water can increase the risk of  damage to the  skin.

5.      The guidelines require those undertaking hand washing procedure to

A. rinse hands with warm  water

B. rinse  hands under  flowing water

C. wash hands  for almost  30 seconds

Patient discharge: If the patient’s  condition  improves so that treatment  can be continued through an outpatient facility or at home, then the patient  is discharged. The patient may also be discharged at their own request,  known  as DAMA,  i.e. a declaration that they  are leaving on their own request. The release is decided by the attending doctor after consultation with the senior consultant. After that the patient deals with the necessary matters, such as transportation from the hospital and notifies their relatives. If the patient is not collected by relatives, the nurse will book an ambulance if the patient’s health condition  requires it.

6.      This guideline  extract says that the nurse  in  charge

A.        should inform relatives about patient’s discharge if the patient’s health  condition  requires it

B.        should arrange transportation from the hospital if the patient’s health  condition  requires it

C.        should book an ambulance from the hospital if the patient’s health  condition  requires it

Part C. TEXT 1. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) Swine Flu Found in Birds

Paragraph 1: Last week the H1N1 virus was found in turkeys on farms in Chile. The UN now says poultry f arms elsewhere in the world could also become infected. Scientists are worried that the virus could theoretically mix with more dangerous strains. It has previously spread from humans to pigs. However, swine flu remains no more severe than seasonal   flu.

Paragraph 2: Chilean authorities ·first reported the incident last week. Two poultry farms  are affected near the seaport of Valparaiso . Juan Lubroth, interim chief veterinary officer of the UN Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), said: “Once the sick birds have recovered, safe production and processing can continue. They do not pose a threat to the  food chain.”

Paragraph 3: Chilean authorities have established a temporary quarantine and have decided to allow the infected birds to recover rather than culling them. It is thought the incident represents a “spill-over” from infected farm workers to  turkeys, Canada, Argentina and Australia have previously reported spread of the H1N1 swine flu virus  from farm workers to  pigs.

Paragraph 4: The emergence of a more dangerous strain of flu remains a theoretical risk.  Different strains of virus can mix in a process called genetic re-assortment or recombination. So far, there have been no cases of H5Nl bird flu in flocks in Chile. However, Dr Lubroth said: “In Southeast Asia there is a lot of the (H5Nl) virus circulating in poultry. “The introduction of H1N1 in these populations would be of greater concern.”

Paragraph 5: Colin Butter from the UK’s Institute  of  Animal Health agrees. “We hope it is  a rare event and we must mo!1,itor closely what happens next,” he told BBC News. “However, it is not just  about the H5N1 strain. Any further spread of  the H1N1 virus between  birds,  or from birds to humans would not be  good.  “It might make the virus harder to control, because it would be more likely to change.”

Paragraph 6: William Karesh, vice president of the Wildlife Conservation Society, who studies the spread of animal diseases, says he is not surprised by what has happened. “The location is surprising, but it could be that Chile has a better surveillance  system. “However, the only constant  is that the situation keeps changing.”

Paragraph 7: The United States has counted 522 fatalities through Thursday, and nearly 1,800 people had died worldwide through  August  13,  U.S. and global health officials said. In terms of mortality rate, which considers flu deaths in terms of a nation’s population , Brazil ranks seventh, and the United States is 13th,  the Brazilian Ministry of Health said in a news release    Wednesday.

Paragraph 8:  Argentina, which has reported 386 deaths attributed to H1N1 as of  August 13,  ranks  first per  capita, the Brazilian  health  officials said, and Mexico, where the flu outbreak was discovered in April, ranks 14th per capita. Brazil, Argentina, Chile, Mexico and the United States have the most total cases globally,  according to the World  Health Organization.

Paragraph 9: The Brazilian Ministry of Health said there have been  6,100 cases of  flu in the nation, with 5,206 cases (85.3 percent)  confirmed  as H1N1,  also known  as swine flu. The state of Sao Paulo had 223 deaths through Wednesday, the largest number in the country. In addition, 480 pregnant women have been confirmed with H1N1, of whom 58 died. Swine flu has been shown to hit young people  and pregnant women particularly  hard.

Paragraph 10:  Many schools in Sao Paulo have delayed the start of the second semester for   a couple of weeks, and students will have to attend classes on weekends to catch up. Schools also have suspended extracurricular activities such as  soccer, volleyball  and chess to try to curtail spread of the   disease.

Paragraph 11:   Flu traditionally has its peak during the winter months, and South America, where it is winter, has had a large number of cases recently. The World Health Organization  said this week that the United  States and other heavily populated Northerri Hemisphere countries need to brace for a second wave of H1N1 as their  winter  approaches.

Paragraph 12:  Officials at the Centres for Disease Control and Prevention and other U.S. health agencies have been preparing and said this week that up to half of the nation’s population may contract the disease and 90,000 could die from it. Seasonal  flu typically kills about 64,000 Americans  each  year.

Paragraph 13:  A vaccine against H1N1 is being tested but is not expected to be available until at least mid-October and will probably require two shots at least one week apart, health officials have said. Since it typically takes a couple of weeks for a person’s immunity to build up after the vaccine, most Americans would not be protected until sometime in November. The World Health Organization in June declared a Level 6 worldwide pandemic, the organization’s  highest classification.

QUESTIONS:

Q1. Scientists are worried that the virus could potentially spread

a.) from pigs to humans

b.) to chicken and turkey farms  elsewhere

c.) to other types of  animals

d.) to the seaport of  Valparaiso

Q2. What does Dr. Lubroth recommend should be done with the sick birds?

a.) They should be processed  immediately.

b.) They should be  killed.

c.) They should be allowed to recover.

d.) They should be given  Tamiflu.

Q3. What is the meaning of the “spill-over” effect mentioned in the passage? a.) The virus has spread from Chile to   Argentina.

b.) The virus has spread from factory workers to   birds.

c.) Turkey blood has been  spilled during the production   process.

d.) Turkeys have become  infected by eating spilled contaminated  pig   food.

Q4. Which possibility is Dr. Lubroth most concerned about?

a.) H5N1  virus  spreading to Chile

b.) H591 virus spreading to Australia

c.) H191 virus spreading to Asia

d.) H191 virus  spreading to Canada

Q5. Which statement best describes the opinion of the representative from the Institute of  Animal Health?

a.) He doesn’t want the virus to spread further because it could lead to genetic reassortment.

b.) He thinks H5N1 is no longer important but he is worried about H1N1.

c.) He hopes that BBC News will pay more attention to closely monitoring the virus.

d.) Birds and humans should be under more control otherwise the virus may change.

Q6. Which statement best describes the opinion of the Vice President of the Wildlife Conservation Society?

a.) He is not surprised that not enough people are studying the spread of animal diseases.

b.) He is not surprised that swine flu has been reported in birds in Chile. 

c.) He is surprised that the situation is constantly    changing.

d.) He is surprised that swine flu has been reported in birds in Chile, but suspects other countries may be unaware  of the spread to  birds.

Q7. According to the Brazilian Ministry of Health

a.) The United  States has counted 522 fatalities.

b.) more people have died in Brazil than in the USA.

c.) more people have died in the USA than in   Brazil.

d.) Brazil is the 13th worst country for swine flu   deaths.

Q8. Which of the following statements is  FALSE?

a.) 52 pregnant women have died of Swine Flu in Brazil.

b.) Argentina  has reported  386 H591 related  deaths.

c.) Swine flu was first discovered in Mexico in   April.

d.) The USA is one of the most, severely affected countries  annually.

Part C. text 2.  Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) Alzheimer Disease

Paragraph 1: Physicians now commonly advise older adults to engage in mentally stimulating activity as a way of reducing their risk of dementia. Indeed, the recommendation is often followed by the acknowledgment that evidence of benefit is still lacking, but “it can’t hurt.” What could possibly be the problem with older adults spending their time doing crossword puzzles and anagrams, completing puzzles, or testing their reaction time on a computer? In certain respects, there is no problem.  Patients will probably  improve at ‘the targeted skills, and may f eel good-particularly if the activity is both challenging and successfully completed.

Paragraph 2: But can it hurt? Possibly. There are two ways that encouraging mental    activity programs might do more harm than good. First, they can falsely raise expectations.  Second, individuals who do develop dementia might be blamed   for their condition. When heavy smokers get lung cancer, they are sometimes seen as having contributed to their own fates. People with Alzheimer disease might similarly be viewed as having brought it on themselves through failure  to exercise their brains.

Paragraph 3:  There is some evidence to support; the idea that mental exercise can improve one’s chances of escaping Alzheimer  disease. Having more years of  education has been shown to be related to a lower prevalence  of   Alzheimer disease. Typically, the risk of Alzheimer disease is two to f our times higher  in those who have fewer years of education, as compared to those who have more years of education. Other epidemiological studies, although with less consistency, have suggested that those who engage in more leisure activities have a lower prevalence and incidence of Alzheimer disease. Additionally, longitudinal studies have found that older adults without dementia who participate in more intellectually  challenging  daily activities show less decline over time on various tests of cognitive  performance.

Paragraph 4: However, both education and leisure activities are imperfect measures of mental exercise. For instance, leisure activities represent a combination of influences. Not only is there mental activation, but there may also be broader health effects, including stress reduction and improved vascular health­ both of which may contribute to reducing dementia risk. It could also be that a third factor, such as intelligence, leads to greater levels of education and more engagement in cognitively stimulating activities, and independently, to lower risk of dementia. Research in Scotland, for example, showed that IQ test scores at age 11 were  predictive  of  future dementia  risk .

Paragraph 5: The concept of cognitive reserve is often used to explain why education and mental stimulation are beneficial. The term cognitive reserve is sometimes taken to ref er directly to brain size or to synaptic density in the cortex. At  other times, cognitive reserve is defined as the ability to compensate for acquired brain pathology.  Taken together,  the evidence is very suggestive  that having greater cognitive reserve is related to a reduced risk of Alzheimer disease. But the evidence that mental exercise can increase cognitive reserve and keep dementia at bay is weaker. In addition, people  with greater   cognitive reserve may choose mentally stimulating leisure activities and jobs, which makes is difficult to precisely determine whether mentally stimulating activities alone can reduce dementia  risk.

Paragraph 6: Cognitive training has demonstrable effects on performance, on views of self, and on brain function-but the results are very specific to the skills that are trained, and it is as yet entirely unknown whether there is any effect on when  or whether an individual develops Alzheimer disease. Further, the types of skills taught by practicing mental puzzles may be less helpful in everyday life than more straight forward techniques, such as concentrating, or taking notes, or putting objects in the same- place each time so that they won’t be   lost.

Paragraph 7: So far, there is little evidence that mental practice will help prevent the development of dementia. There is better evidence that good brain health is determined by multiple factors, that brain development early in life matters, and that genetic influences are of great importance in accounting for individual differences in cognitive reserve and in explaining who develops Alzheimer disease and who does not. At least half of the explanation for individual differences in susceptibility  to Alzheimer  disease is genetic, although the genes Involved have not yet been completely discovered. The balance of the explanation lies in environmental influences and behavioral health practices, alone or in interaction with genetic factors. However, at this stage, there is no convincing evidence that memory practice and other cognitively stimulating activities are sufficient to prevent  Alzheimer  disease; it is not just  a case of  “use it or lose it.”

QUESTIONS

Q1. According to paragraph 1, which of the following statements matches the opinion of most doctors?

a.  Mentally  stimulating activities are of  little use

b.  The risk of  dementia can be reduced by doing mentally   stimulating activities

c.  The benefits  of mentally  stimulating activities are not yet  proven

d.  Mentally stimulating activities do more harm than   good

Q2. In paragraph  2, the author expresses the opinion that    …….

a.  Mentally stimulating activities may off er false hope

b.  Dementia sufferers often blame themselves for their  condition

c.  Alzheimer’s disease may be caused lack of mental exercise

d.  Mentally stimulating activities do more harm than   good

Q3. In paragraph 3, which of the following does not match the information on research  into Alzheimer disease?

a.  People with less education have a higher risk of Alzheimer    disease

b.  Cognitive performance can be enhanced by regularly doing activities which  are mentally challenging

c.  Having more education reduces the risk of Alzheimer    disease

d.  Regular involvement in leisure activities may reduce the risk of  Alzheimer disease

Q4. According to paragraph 4, which of the following statements is   false?

a.  The impact of  education and leisure is difficult to  measure

b.  Better vascular health and reduced stress can decrease the risk of    dementia

c.  People with higher IQ scores may be less likely to suffer from   dementia

d.  Cognitively  stimulating activities reduce  dementia risk

Q5. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the expression: keep dementia  at bay?

a.  delay the onset of  dementia

b.  cure dementia

c.  reduce the severity of  dementia

d.  treat dementia

Q6. Which of the following phrases best summarises the main idea presented in paragraph 6?

a.  The effect cognitive training has on Alzheimer  disease is limited

b.  Doing mental puzzles may not be as beneficial as concentrating in everyday life

c.  Cognitive training improves brain performance

d.  The effect cognitive training has on Alzheimer  disease is indefinite

Q7. According to paragraph 7, which of the following is correct regarding the development  of dementia?

a.  Genetic factors are the most  significant

b.  Environmental factors interact with behavioural factors in determining susceptibility to Alzheimer disease

c.  Good brain health can reduce the risk of  developing Alzheimer   disease

d.  None of the above

Q8. Which of the following would be the best alternative title for the essay?

a.  New developments  in Alzheimer research

b.  Benefits of  education in fighting Alzheimer  disease

c.  Doubts regarding mental exercise as a preventive measure for Alzheimer disease

d.  The importance of cognitive training in preventing early onset of Alzheimer disease

How did it go? Please share your feedback in the comment section below:

OET READING TESTS