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Test 1 Duolingo Interactive Reading

Supernova

Supernova

Time left: 2:30

Fill in the Blanks:

A supernova is a powerful and luminous explosion of a __________.

A supernova occurs during the last evolutionary stages of a massive star, or when a white dwarf is triggered into runaway __________ fusion.

The original object, called the progenitor, either collapses to a neutron star or __________ hole, or is completely destroyed to form a diffuse nebula.

The peak optical luminosity of a supernova can be comparable to that of an entire __________ before fading over several weeks or months.

Duolingo- Describe image – women and snow

Model answer by Lifestyle Training Centre

In this picture, a woman is sitting alone on a bench by a road, seemingly anticipating her transportation. She faces a line of majestic, towering mountains in the distance that brush against the passing white clouds, covering a large portion of the blue sky behind them. The horizontal line of trees in front of the mountains is scenic. Apart from the carpet of snow stretching as far as the eye can see and a leafless tree next to the woman, there is no one else present in the picture. Overall, it is an intriguing and serene image.

List of vocabulary used

Here is a list of vocabulary words used in the description along with their meanings:

  1. Image: A visual representation of something.
  2. Sitting: Being seated.
  3. Bench: A long seat for several people.
  4. Apparently: As far as one knows or can see.
  5. Anticipating: Expecting or looking forward to something.
  6. Transportation: The action of moving from one place to another.
  7. Majestic: Having or showing impressive beauty or scale.
  8. Towering: Extremely tall or high, especially relative to surroundings.
  9. Brush: To lightly touch or sweep against.
  10. Passing: Moving past something or someone.
  11. Horizontal: Parallel to the horizon; level.
  12. Scenic: Providing or relating to beautiful natural scenery.
  13. Carpet: Used metaphorically to describe a continuous, extensive surface.
  14. Leafless: Without leaves.
  15. Intriguing: Arousing curiosity or interest; fascinating.
  16. Serene: Calm, peaceful, and untroubled.
  17. Apparently: As far as one can see or understand.
  18. Anticipating: Looking forward to something; expecting.
  19. Towering: Very high or tall.
  20. Brush: To lightly touch in passing.
  21. Majestic: Having a lofty, grand, or impressive appearance.
  22. Scenic: Providing or relating to picturesque views.
  23. Carpet: A layer or covering resembling a carpet.
  24. Leafless: Without any leaves.
  25. Intriguing: Fascinating and captivating.
  26. Serene: Calm, peaceful, and tranquil.

Keratosis Follicularis OET Reading

Part A

TEXT A Keratosis follicularis is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. Physical examination classically shows keratotic papules that are distributed mostly on the so-called “seborrheic” areas of the body. Nail involvement is not uncommon and is characterized by V-shaped nicking at the distal aspect of the nail bed, longitudinal red and white alternating bands, and subungual hyperkeratosis. Mucosal membrane involvement may occur as white papules on the buccal mucosae, palate, and gingiva with a cobblestone appearance.

Keratosis follicularis affects males and females in equal numbers. It is estimated to occur in 1 in 36,000 to 100,000 individuals in the general population. The disorder usually becomes apparent during the second decade in life, but has developed in individuals as young 4 and older than 70. Keratosis follicularis was first described in the medical literature in 1889.

TEXT B Signs & Symptoms

The symptoms of keratosis follicularis usually become apparent during the teen-age years often around puberty. Symptoms may develop in younger or older individuals, but rarely develop after the third or fourth decade of life. The severity of the disorder and the specific symptoms that develop vary, even among individuals within the same family.

The initial lesions in keratosis follicularis are usually small, firm, greasy bumps (papules) that are often skincolored, brown or yellow-brown in color. The lesions usually affect the areas of the body near sebaceous glands (sebaceous glands secrete oily grease) including the chest, back, forehead and scalp. Darier disease may also affect skin creases e.g. groin.

The skin lesions associated with keratosis follicularis generally develop a brown, greasy crust and become thickened and warty (hyperkeratotic), scaly and darkened. The lesions will slowly grow bigger eventually coming together (coalescing) to form discolored, warty plaques that may cover extensive areas of the body particularly on the trunk. In extremely rare, severe cases, almost the entire body may be affected. The lesions may cause persistent itchiness (pruritus). Some patients have fragile skin that blisters or becomes raw (erosions) and painful.

The skin may develop bacterial, viral or fungal infections (secondary infections) that worsen the condition. Infected skin lesions may give off a distinct, unpleasant (malodorous) smell. The herpes simplex virus may be prone to infecting the lesions and causes pain. Heat, exercise and sunlight may also worsen keratosis follicularis or cause a new outbreak of lesions.

Individuals with keratosis follicularis may have periods when few lesions are present. However, the lesions tend to recur. Keratosis follicularis is usually worse in the summer and improves in the winter. Heat or sun often causes an outbreak.

Another common finding associated with keratosis follicularis is the development of multiple, small, yellow-brown, flattened wart-like (verrucous) bumps (papules) on backs of the hands or feet. These bumps may be the first sign of keratosis follicularis. Many affected individuals develop small horny bumps called punctate keratoses on the palms and soles.

Sometimes the mucous membranes within the mouth develop small bumps (papules). The roof of the mouth (palate) is most often affected. The gums, larynx and esophagus may also be affected. Darier disease can also affect the ducts of the salivary glands causing salivary gland obstruction. In some cases, Darier disease has developed on the mucous membranes of the anus and rectum.

Although in most people Darier disease is limited to the skin, additional symptoms have been reported in some cases including seizures, bipolar disorder, and learning disabilities.
Keratosis follicularis may -be restricted to a band of skin on one side of the body (segmental or linear keratosis follicularis).

TEXT C Diagnosis

A diagnosis of keratosis follicularis is made based upon a thorough clinical evaluation, a detailed patient history, identification of characteristic findings and microscopic examination (biopsy) of affected skin tissue. A biopsy may reveal abnormal formation of keratin tissue (keratinization) and failure of cell-to-cell adhesion (acantholysis).

Standard Therapies

Treatment: The treatment of keratosis follicularis is directed toward the specific symptoms that are apparent in each individual. For some individuals, sunscreen, loose clothing, moisturizing creams and avoiding excessive heat may reduce the severity of the disease.

Synthetic derivatives of vitamin A applied directly to the affected areas may help reduce scaly thickening of the skin. Therapy that helps soften and shed hardened, abnormal skin (keratolytics) such as treatment with salicylic acid in propylene glycol gel may also help treat hyperkeratosis. Topical corticosteroids and substances that soothe and soften the skin (emollients) have also been used to alleviate inflammation in localized keratosis follicularis.

Retinoids taken by mouth have been effective in treating individuals with keratosis follicularis and are the drugs most often used to treat severe cases. Oral retinoids such as tretinoin and acitretin affect the entire body (systemic therapy). Oral retinoids can be associated with side effects. Women must not become pregnant when taking a retinoid because these drugs could damage the baby and pregnancy should be avoided for some time after stopping the drug. Retinoids should only be used under the supervision of a physician.

Antibiotics may be necessary to treat individuals with secondary bacterial infection. Antiviral agents such as

acyclovir have been used to treat associated infection with the herpes simplex virus.

Keratosis Follicularis: Questions Questions 1 – 7 For each question 1 – 7, decide which text (A, B, C or D) the information comes from. You may use anyletter more than once.

In which text can you find information about

1. A period of time where keratosis follicularis become evident ___________

2. The share of the disease between genders ___________

3. A cross-sectional study on keratosis follicularis ___________

4. Ways to reduce the intensity of the disease ___________

5. Infections that can exacerbate the condition ___________

6. Accepted therapy regimen for keratosis follicularis ___________

7. Various grades of acne on the face ___________

Questions 8 – 14

Answer each of the questions, 8 – 14, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts. Each answer may include words, numbers or both.

8. The virus that may be prone to infecting the lesions and causes pain is?

9. What are the causes of keratosis follicularis outbreak?

10. The number of women who used contraceptives who were not diagnosed with keratosis follicularis?

11. What are the small horny bumps called on the palms and soles?

12. Which grade of facial acne had the highest number of people with minimal sufferers of keratosis follicularis?

13. When was keratosis follicularis first described in the medical literature?

14. Which are the drugs taken orally for effective treatment for severe keratosis follicularis?

Questions 15 – 20. Complete each of the sentences, 15 – 20, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts. Each answermay include words, numbers or both.

15. A biopsy may reveal abnormal formation of _________ and failure of cell-to-cell adhesion.

16. _____________ involvement may occur as white papules on the buccal mucosae, palate, and gingiva with a cobblestone appearance.

17. Synthetic derivatives of ____________ applied directly to the affected areas might reduce scaly thickening of the skin.

18. An antiviral agent __________ is being used to treat associated infection with the herpes simplex virus.

19. The percentage of people aged 25 years with the history of acne having acute keratosis follicularis, according to Fisher’s test was ______________.

20. Physical examination shows keratotic papules that are known and distributed mostly on the ____________ areas of the body.

PART B In this part of the test, there are six short extracts relating to the work of health professionals. For questions 1-6 choose the answers (A, B or C) which you think fits best according to the text.

1. The memo is to remind staff.
A. to remind them about the statistics of blood flow to the organs.
B. the importance of having professional approach during emergency.
C. the procedure to give a high quality CPR to patients.

CPR: CPR is a lifesaving intervention and the cornerstone of resuscitation from cardiac arrest. Survival from cardiac arrest depends on early recognition of the event and immediate activation of the emergency response system, but equally critical is the quality of CPR delivered. Both animal and clinical studies demonstrate that the quality of CPR during resuscitation has a significant impact on survival and contributes to the wide variability of survival noted between and within systems of care. CPR is inherently inefficient; it provides only 10% to 30% of normal blood flow to the heart and 30% to 40% of normal blood flow to the brain even when delivered according to guidelines. This inefficiency highlights the need for trained rescuers to deliver the highest-quality CPR possible.

2. The study inform that IE.
A. can be reduced by appropriate dental care.
B. antibiotics can improve poorer outcomes.
C. has revealed no evidences of GI and GU for the cause.

Infective Endocarditis : A study by the members of American College of Cardiology along with other international experts on IE, extensively reviewed published studies in order to determine whether dental, gastrointestinal or genitourinary tract procedures are possible cause of IE. Findings found no conclusive evidence linking GI or GU tract procedures with the development of IE. They also concluded that antibiotics before dental procedures are reasonable only for certain patients at increased risk of developing IE and at highest risk of poor outcomes from IE.
The practice of routinely giving antibiotics to patients at risk for IE prior to dental procedures is not recommended except for patients with the highest risk of adverse outcomes resulting from IE. The Committees concluded that only a small number of IE cases might be prevented by antibiotic prophylaxis prior to a dental procedure. In addition, prophylaxis should be reserved only for patients with cardiac conditions associated with the highest risk. You can reduce the risk of IE by maintaining good oral health through regular professional dental care and the use of dental products, such as manual, powered and ultrasonic toothbrushes; dental floss; and other plaque-removal devices.

3. The purpose of these instruction is to explain how
A. critical is the patients’ stability.
B. to administer pain killers.
C. fractures are causes for trauma.

Fracture Diagnosis & Classification
Patient Stabilization: Because most fractures result from trauma, it is important to ensure stability of the animal prior to focusing on the fracture. Ideally, for any patient that presents after a traumatic event:
1. Check and stabilize vitals (temperature, pulse quality and heart rate, respiration rate, blood pressure, pulse oximetry), if needed
2. Perform thorough physical, orthopedic, and neurologic examinations.
3. Pursue initial diagnostics, including blood analysis, thoracic and abdominal radiographs, and an AFAST ultrasound.
4. Resolve any life-threatening issues, which means that surgery may need to be delayed for several days due to conditions, such as pulmonary contusions or hypovolemia.
5. Administer proper analgesia as soon as possible: Ideal analgesics are pure mu opioids.

4. Caesarean section is the only way to reduce breech delivery?
A. True
B. False
C. Not Given
Vaginal Delivery of Breech Presentation
Compared with a foetus with cephalic presentation, a breech foetus faces increased risk during labour and delivery of asphyxia from cord compression and of traumatic injury during delivery of the shoulders and head. Pre-emptive Caesarean section avoids most of this risk. Prior to 1940, despite breech perinatal mortality rates of 5%, CS involved too much maternal risk to be used routinely to lower foetal risk. Improved safety with antibiotics, blood transfusion, and Kerr’s lower segment incision prompted consideration of routine CS for breech presentation. Concurrently, improvements in vaginal breech delivery technique markedly lowered the risk of a trial of labour in experienced hands, and breech perinatal mortality continued to fall, despite stabilization of the CS rate. The debate surrounding the optimal mode of delivery for the breech foetus focuses on a single clinical question: what is the magnitude of risk to the foetus of a TOL and how should we balance it against the increased immediate and future risk of CS to the mother and her future children?

5. What is the main focus of ERIC?
A. is to spread the characters Wee & Poo in the schools.
B. is to raise cognizance and reduce non healthy habits of children.
C. is to calculate the number of students who experience bullying.
Tackling Embarrassing Health Problems
In the UK an estimated 900,000, or 1 in 12, 5-19 year olds suffer with a continence problem including constipation, soiling, daytime bladder issues and bedwetting. There is also a growing trend of later potty training and children starting school still wearing nappies. At ERIC, we have seen a sharp rise in calls to our helpline regarding children under 6 years old who are struggling with wetting and soiling. Dealing with a toileting problem can have a devastating impact on a child’s learning, development and wellbeing. We must address the reluctance to talk openly about wee and poo. The shame and stigma associated with having an accident can have a long-lasting negative effect on children and teenagers’ school experience. These young people are at high risk of bullying. Education and understanding around the basics of how to keep your bowel and bladder healthy, spotting the signs of a problem and asking for help is vital. These are the issues that need to be normalised and talked about openly to improve children’s physical and mental wellbeing and long-term health outcomes. Based in Bristol, the goal of the schools’ pilot is to raise awareness of good bladder and bowel health for life, using our Wee & Poo characters. It will promote the message that ‘It’s Good to Go!’. In the long term, our ambition is to roll this out as a national campaign targeting all children.

6. The purpose of the study is to explain.
A. the recurrence of dislocation can be eradicated with surgery.
B. the recurrence rate is between 15% to 44% before treatment.
C. the impact it can have on sportsperson after injury.

Primary Patellar Dislocation
The average annual incidence of primary patellar dislocation is 5.8 per 100 000 in the general population, with the highest incidence in the 10- to 17-year age group (29 per 100 000). The majority of these patients will not experience further instability, with reported recurrence rates of 15% to 44% after conservative treatment. Although recurrence is the exception and not the rule, many patients continue to be symptomatic following their dislocation episodes. Atkin et al noted that at 6 months postinjury, 58% of patients continue to have limitations with strenuous activity. Failure to return to sport is found in as many as 55% of patients. For these reasons, surgical intervention has been advocated in an attempt to reduce the recurrence rate, which has led to confusion and controversy regarding surgical indications in the acute setting.

PART C Mifepristone at home

The World Health Organization’s new guidelines on abortion care recommend that medical abortion in the first 12 weeks of pregnancy can safely be delivered by telemedicine and that women can self-administer both mifepristone and misoprostol at home. Yet on 24 February 2022, the Department of Health for England announced that its temporary approval of home use of mifepristone, made during the covid-19 pandemic, would cease in August 2022. The following day, the Welsh government announced that home use of mifepristone would become permanent, citing the safety and benefits for those accessing abortion services, as well as for the NHS. The Scottish government has yet to decide whether home use of mifepristone will become permanent. Home use of mifepristone was never introduced in Northern Ireland.

Around 80% of all abortions in Scotland, England, and Wales are medical, using mifepristone and misoprostol. Around 80% occur in the first 10 weeks of pregnancy, with the pregnancy ending at home. Scotland introduced legislation permitting women to self-administer misoprostol at home in 2017, followed in 2018 by England and Wales, but legal restrictions meant that women had to take the first dose of mifepristone at a licensed clinical site. This legal requirement was clinically unnecessary and resulted in extra visits for women and extra costs to the NHS.

In recognition of the need to limit transmission of covid-19 from in-person attendances, the governments of England, Wales, and Scotland introduced temporary approvals in March 2020 to allow administration of mifepristone at home. This was the only change made to the law surrounding abortion care and meant that women could collect medication packs to use at home or receive them by post. Evidence based clinical guidance from the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare UK, and British Society of Abortion Care Providers emphasises the use of telemedicine and assessment of gestation using last certain menstrual period, with ultrasound conducted only where clinically indicated.

UK guidance has never mandated routine ultrasound scanning to assess gestation or location of pregnancy before abortion, and pre-pandemic guidance from the National Institute of Health and Care Excellence (NICE) already encouraged telemedicine. Registry data for England and Wales show that the new model for delivery of abortion care introduced during the pandemic—a telemedicine consultation, ultrasound only when indicated, and both mifepristone and misoprostol at home—was associated with an increased proportion of abortions being conducted medically and at earlier gestations. This suggests better access to abortion.

Treatment at earlier gestations is less painful and causes less bleeding. Published evidence from England, Wales, and Scotland shows that the new model of care is as safe and effective as former models of in-person consultation and administration of mifepristone on clinical premises. Studies also show that women are able to take mifepristone at home correctly and appreciate the option and privacy of consultation by telephone. Women support continuation of home use of mifepristone for reasons of privacy, convenience, and autonomy. Research among providers suggests they consider the new model more patient centred. An economic evaluation estimates that the telemedicine model saved the NHS at least £3m (€3.6m; $4m) a year.

The English government’s decision to act against substantial clinical evidence, expert advice, and pleas from royal colleges serves only to punish and infantilise women. At a time when reproductive rights in the US and parts of Europe are being attacked, our governments should not be bowing to pressure from anti-abortion extremism. Restrictions to abortion do not prevent abortion; they simply result in later abortion. Telemedicine delivery of abortion care in England will remain, in line with clinical guidelines, and medical abortion at home will continue (as before covid-19), but in England, women will be forced to take one of their pills in clinic rather than at home like their Welsh and Scottish counterparts. This means less flexibility of care in England, less patient centred care, more travel, more time off work for appointments, delays to care, an increase in gestation at abortion, and greater costs to the NHS in England.

Abortion is an essential part of healthcare, and delivery of care should be led by evidence. Governments should act in accordance with the best evidence available for improving public health. This includes following national and international evidence showing that taking mifepristone at home is safe. Sadly, for the English government, home use of mifepristone seems to be the bitterest pill to swallow.

7. What is the disparity about the use of mifepristone in the first paragraph in one of the UK countries?
A. Wales government made the use of the medicine permanent.
B. It was never instigated in the Northern Ireland.
C. Nobody can use the medicine since August 2022 in the UK.
D. A non-permanent approval is to be sorted in England.
8. In paragraph 2, which of the following statement is not true.
A. England and Wales were preceded by Scotland to legalize the use of medicine without any help.
B. 80% of all abortions in the UK countries is done by either of the two medicines.
C. National Health Service had to incur extra spendings on the additional visits.
D. Scots allowed 10 weeks of pregnant women to get aborted at home in 2017.
9. What is the best practise from the evidence provided from the institutes in England in 3rd paragraph?
A. Use telemedicine to assess the menstrual period.
B. The medicine mifepristone can be received at home or could be collected.
C. A medical examination using a scanner to done if stipulated.
D. Scotland was the one to initiate the short-term approval.
10. What point is made by the writer by the use of the word this?
A. The neoteric notion.
B. Earlier gestation.
C. A telephonic data collection.
D. Ultrasound before abortion.
11. What do we learn from the study into the new model of care in the 5th paragraph?
A. The amount saved by the NHS annually.
B. A treatment which has reduced the associated complications.
C. Women are indebted due to the secrecy maintained.
D. Older type of administration was less effective.
12. What reservation does the write emphasise about restrictions to abortion in the sixth paragraph?
A. It will never curb the flaming issue regarding feticide.
B. Governments should oblige to the activists.
C. Authority should oblige to the recommendations and punish women.
D. Abortion is anticipated to be banned in England.
13. What is considered as the stumbling block for women in England post corona period?
A. They will be more patient centred than other two countries.
B. They will have to visit the health care service for initial services.
C. Home based medical abortion will pursue as before covid-19.
D. Will incur a huge monetary loss for the patients in England.
14. What does the phrase bitterest pill to swallow refers to in the final paragraph?
A. Reliable evidence which is available globally.
B. Abortion being and integral part in healthcare.
C. The best evidence to improve general health.
D. A difficult task faced by the authority in England.

PART C. TEXT 2. Eczema

Eczema, also known as atopic dermatitis, is the most common form of dermatitis. Genetic as well as environmental factors are thought to play a part in the pathogenesis. Eczema is most commonly seen in children but can be seen in adults. People with the disease tend to have dry, itchy skin that is prone to infection. Eczema is commonly known as the “itch that rashes” due to dry skin that leads to a rash as a result of scratching or rubbing. The most important treatment of eczema is skin hydration followed by topical steroids for flare-ups.

People with eczema have a dysfunctional barrier which causes various problems. The cells that make up our skin are essential for optimal skin hydration. People with eczema tend to have dry skin due to the dysfunction in the skin barrier. Water can more easily escape from the skin leading to dehydrated skin. Harmful substances can more readily penetrate the skin due to the dysfunction. People with atopic dermatitis tend to have a skewed inflammatory immune response, and their skin is easily irritated by fragrances and allergens.

The lifetime prevalence of atopic dermatitis is about 15-30% in children and 2-10% in adults. About 60% of cases will develop within the first year of life. The prevalence of atopic dermatitis is more common in rural
rather than urban areas. This incidence which emphasizes the link to lifestyle and environment factors in the mechanisms of AD. Atopic dermatitis is apart of the triad known as the ‘Atopic march.’ This relates to the association between patients with atopic dermatitis, asthma, and allergic rhinitis. About 50% of patients with severe atopic dermatitis will develop asthma, and 75% will develop allergic rhinitis.

Research shows there is a genetic component to atopic dermatitis. One common mutation has been observed in the gene Filaggrin, a vital gene for skin cell maturity. This gene is responsible for creating the tough, flat corneocytes that form the outermost protective layer of skin. In a patient with normal skin cells, the corneocytes are tightly packed in an organized manner. A patient with a filaggrin mutation will have a dysfunctional skin barrier due to the haphazard organization of the skin cells. This dysfunction causes a ‘leaky’ skin barrier allowing water loss and decreased protection from harmful substances. People with eczema also have reduced numbers of beta-defensins in the skin. Beta-defensins are host defence peptides that are vital for fighting off certain bacteria, viruses, and fungi. A decrease in these peptides leads to increased colonization and infection, especially with staph aureus.

The histopathology seen in atopic dermatitis is non-specific. In the acute phase lesions, characterized by intensely pruritic, erythematous papules, histopathology reveals mild epidermal hyperplasia, infiltrations of
lymphocytes and macrophages along the venous plexus in the dermis and intercellular edema of the epidermis (spongiosis). Lesions biopsied in chronic atopic dermatitis, which are characterized by lichenification and fibrotic papules, may reveal increased hyperplasia and hyperkeratosis of the skin. There is also persistent dermal inflammatory cell infiltrate with lymphocytes and macrophages. The chronic phase lacks the edema or spongiosis that is present in acute phase lesions.

The distribution of the rash seen in atopic dermatitis will vary depending on the age of the person. Infants tend to have widely distributed, dry, scaly and erythematous patches with small excoriations. They also tend to have involvement of their face, especially the cheeks. As the child ages, the rash becomes more localized. Areas affected will include the extensors surfaces such as the wrists, elbows, ankles, and knees. School-aged children tend to follow the pattern that is seen in adults. This pattern includes the involvement of the flexural surfaces usually affecting the anti-cubital and popliteal fosse.

A team-based approach is essential for the care of a patient with atopic dermatitis, especially in moderate to severe cases. Eczema is a common condition seen in pediatric and family medicine offices. Typically patients with mild to moderate eczema can be treated in the office by their primary care provider with standard therapy. Patients with moderate to severe cases may require referral to dermatology for systemic treatments. If a patient is not responding to typical treatment regimens, they may benefit from a consult with an allergist for a patch or skin scratch testing. An interprofessional team of a specialty trained dermatology nurse and specialty-trained dermatology clinician will provide the best patient care.

15. In the first paragraph, the writer says that the issue with people having eczema?
A. is commonly known as rashes that can itc.
B. are caused by two vital factors.
C. severe worsening of the disease.
D. are with a tendency to get other conditions.
16. What does the writer mean by the word skewed?
A. Distorted.
B. Straightened.
C. Inclined.
D. Assorted.
17. What does the word triad refer to in the third paragraph?
A. causes of atopic march.
B. link between lifestyle and environment.
C. link between the three conditions.
D. susceptible areas.
18. In the fourth paragraph, we learn that Beta- defensins are?
A. are compounds that decreases colonization and invasion of germs.
B. are compounds that fight against the invasion and growth of microorganisms.
C. are compounds that decreases protection from harmful substances.
D. are compounds that prevent peptides from pathogens.
19. Why does the writer says that filaggrin mutation can be problematic because of?
A. the important gene for skin cell maturity.
B. the cells of the skin being of unsystematic pattern.
C. the research found the genetic component to atopic dermatitis.
D. the gene creating a layer as a defence mechanism on the skin.
20. The distinguishing features of chronic phase atopic dermatitis are?
A. persistent edema, itchy skin and interconnected blood vessels.
B. abnormal redness of the skin and less severe epidermal hyperplasia.
C. the study of changes in tissues caused by disease.
D. enlarged organs, thickened and leathery skin.
21. What is highlighted regarding the distribution pattern seen in matured population?
A. Generally affects the inner flexible space in the knee joint and forearm.
B. Most commonly seen on the cheeks.
C. Predominantly affects the fronts part of the knee.
D. Distribution of rashes are largely of the same proportion.
22. What does the writer states regarding the treatment options for eczema patients?
A. Most patients should be treated only by the primary care provider.
B. A dermatologist should be consulted for standard treatments.
C. A collaborative team effort would be of ultimate benefit for non-responders.
D. A co-operative attitude amongst the specialist is beneficial for all patients.

Discuss the impact of international tourism on local cultures. Is it a positive or negative influence?

Model answer by Lifestyle Training Centre

International travel has become increasingly prevalent in our interconnected world, serving as a gateway for exploration, cultural exchange, and economic growth. While it offers a myriad of benefits, it also poses challenges and negative impacts on local cultures. This essay will explore both these contrasting aspects in detail.

On one hand, international tourism brings substantial economic benefits, significantly boosting the revenue of local societies and even entire nations. Tourists typically spend their money on a variety of goods and services, including accommodation, food, clothing, and local arts and crafts. This influx of spending stimulates trade and economic growth, particularly benefiting local businesses and entrepreneurs. A prime example of this phenomenon is Dubai, which has transformed from a desert into a global tourism hub, generating millions in revenue from tourism alone.

However, international travel can also have detrimental impacts on local cultures. While foreign visitors bring economic benefits and job opportunities, they can inadvertently undermine the cultural purity of local communities. The dominance of foreign languages often threatens the survival of local languages, leading to their gradual extinction. Moreover, the intrusion of foreign customs and lifestyles can disrupt traditional practices, beliefs, and social norms, potentially resulting in the dilution or even loss of indigenous cultural identities. Furthermore, the commercialisation of local cultures to cater to tourists can lead to the commodification and trivialisation of cultural heritage. Traditional rituals and artefacts may be transformed into mere spectacles for tourist consumption, stripping them of their original meaning and significance. This cultural commodification can erode the authenticity of local traditions, leaving communities struggling to preserve their unique cultural heritage.

In conclusion, while international tourism can significantly foster economic growth and uplift local businesses, it also poses a threat to the preservation of local cultures and languages. To strike a balance, it is crucial to promote responsible and sustainable tourism practices that respect and preserve cultural heritage. Governments and tourism authorities should implement policies that encourage tourists to engage with local cultures in a respectful and meaningful way, ensuring that the benefits of tourism are enjoyed without compromising cultural integrity.

List of vocabulary

  1. Prevalent: Widespread or commonly occurring.
  2. Interconnected: Having all parts linked or connected.
  3. Gateway: A means of achieving something or entering somewhere.
  4. Exploration: The action of traveling in or through an unfamiliar area to learn about it.
  5. Foster: encourage the development of (something, especially something desirable).
  6. Cultural exchange: The sharing of ideas, traditions, and other aspects of culture among different groups of people.
  7. Economic growth: An increase in the production of goods and services in an economy.
  8. Myriad: A countless or extremely great number.
  9. Challenges: Difficulties or problems that need to be overcome.
  10. Contrasting: Differing strikingly.
  11. Substantial: Of considerable importance, size, or worth.
  12. Revenue: Income, especially when of a company or organization and of a substantial nature.
  13. Accommodation: A room, group of rooms, or building in which someone may live or stay.
  14. Inflow: The act of flowing in.
  15. Influx: an arrival or entry of large numbers of people or things
  16. Stimulates: Encourages interest or activity in something.
  17. Entrepreneurs: People who set up a business or businesses, taking on financial risks in the hope of profit.
  18. Phenomenon: A fact or situation that is observed to exist or happen, especially one whose cause or explanation is in question.
  19. Inadvertently: Without intention; accidentally.
  20. Undermine: Damage or weaken (someone or something), especially gradually or insidiously.
  21. Cultural purity: The state of being free from outside influences in culture.
  22. Dominance: Power and influence over others.
  23. Gradual extinction: The slow process of dying out or disappearing.
  24. Intrusion: The act of intruding; entrance by force or without permission or welcome.
  25. Dilution: The action of making something weaker in force, content, or value.
  26. Indigenous: Originating or occurring naturally in a particular place; native.
  27. Commodification: The action or process of treating something as a mere commodity.
  28. Trivialisation: The act of making something seem less important, significant, or complex than it really is.
  29. Artefacts: Objects made by a human being, typically an item of cultural or historical interest.
  30. Spectacles: Visually striking performances or displays.
  31. Authenticity: The quality of being genuine or real.
  32. Heritage: Property that is or may be inherited; an inheritance.
  33. Sustainable: Able to be maintained at a certain rate or level; conserving an ecological balance by avoiding depletion of natural resources.
  34. Preserve: Maintain (something) in its original or existing state.
  35. Integrity: The quality of being honest and having strong moral principles.
  36. Mutually: In a mutual or shared manner.
  37. Mitigated: Made less severe, serious, or painful.

Should smoking be banned in all public places, or is it a personal choice that should be respected? IELTS writing task 2- Discussion/Direct essay.

Model answer by Lifestyle Training Centre


Smoking in public places has long been a contentious issue worldwide. Although some view it as a personal choice, I firmly oppose public smoking. This essay will present the arguments supporting my stance.

Smoking in public spaces is a reprehensible act, characterised by its selfish and inconsiderate nature. When individuals smoke in public, they subject non-smokers to the detrimental effects of passive smoking, thereby jeopardizing their health. Children and innocent bystanders, who have no inclination towards smoking, often suffer the consequences of this harmful practice. Passive smoking not only results in long-term respiratory issues but also significantly increases the risk of serious ailments such as cancer. A recent survey conducted in India highlights the grave implications of passive smoking, particularly in children, identifying it as a leading cause of cancer among them and underscoring the urgency of addressing this public health concern.

In addition to causing deleterious health issues to bystanders, public smoking can also influence children and teens to embark on the journey of smoking. By smoking in public, smokers inadvertently promote the notion that smoking is acceptable. This can be seriously harmful to the health and wellbeing of society as a whole. Statistics indicate that children who have parents who smoke are more likely to take up smoking at an early age, thus dragging themselves into a lifestyle of addiction.

To conclude, while smoking may be a personal choice, doing it in public is not justifiable as it causes serious harm to bystanders and can lead to moral degradation, influencing children and teens to start smoking early in life. If one must smoke, it should be done in private, ensuring that others’ health and morals are not jeopardised.  

List of vocabulary used

  1. Contentious: causing or likely to cause an argument; controversial.
  2. Reprehensible: deserving censure or condemnation; very bad.
  3. Inconsiderate: thoughtlessly causing hurt or inconvenience to others.
  4. Detrimental: tending to cause harm.
  5. Passive smoking: involuntary inhalation of smoke from other people’s cigarettes, cigars, or pipes.
  6. Jeopardizing: putting (someone or something) into a situation in which there is a danger of loss, harm, or failure.
  7. Innocent bystanders: people who are present at an event or incident but do not take part and are not involved.
  8. Respiratory issues: problems related to the lungs and breathing.
  9. Ailments: an illness, typically a minor one.
  10. Survey: a method of gathering information from individuals, usually by asking questions.
  11. Implications: the possible effects or results of an action or a decision.
  12. Deleterious: causing harm or damage.
  13. Influence: the capacity to have an effect on the character, development, or behavior of someone or something.
  14. Promote: further the progress of (something, especially a cause, venture, or aim); support or actively encourage.
  15. Notion: a conception of or belief about something.
  16. Justifiable: able to be shown to be right or reasonable; defensible.
  17. Moral degradation: decline in ethical standards or moral values.
  18. Ensuring: making certain that something shall occur or be the case.
  19. Jeopardized: put at risk; endangered.

14. IELTS Writing task 1. Number of medals won by the top five countries

The graphs below show the number of medals won by the top five countries in the summer and winter Olympics. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.

Model answer by Lifestyle Training Centre

The provided bar charts illustrate the cumulative count of gold, silver, and bronze medals attained by different countries in both the winter and summer Olympics.

Overall, it is evident that Norway emerged as the leading medallist in the winter Olympics, while the United States dominated in the summer Olympics. Conversely, Russia and Canada recorded the lowest medal tallies in the winter events, with Great Britain and France demonstrating comparable performance during the summer Olympics.

Examining the data in more detail, Norway clinched approximately 130 gold, 260 silver, and 370 bronze medals in the winter Olympics. The United States, securing the second position, attained around 105 gold, 220 silver, and 305 bronze in the winter Games, while achieving a remarkable total of around 2500 medals in the summer Olympics. Germany garnered around 90 gold, 180 silver, and 240 bronze medals in the winter Olympics, accumulating a commendable total of approximately 1700 medals in the summer Games.

In contrast, Russia achieved around 70 gold, 130 silver, and 190 bronze medals in the winter Olympics, yet remarkably collected a total of around 1800 medals in the summer Olympics. Canada secured around 70 gold, 135 silver, and 195 bronze medals in the winter Games. Great Britain and France, despite obtaining the lowest medal counts, amassed an aggregate of around 800 and 700 medals, respectively, in the summer Olympics.

Vocabulary used:

  1. Cumulative: Accumulated; total.
  2. Emerged: Became visible or apparent; came out as a result.
  3. Dominated: Exerted control or influence over; was the most successful.
  4. Conversely: In contrast; on the other hand.
  5. Recorded: Documented; registered.
  6. Tally: Count; total.
  7. Demonstrating: Showing; exhibiting.
  8. Examining: Investigating; analyzing.
  9. Clinched: Secured; won decisively.
  10. Remarkable: Extraordinary; noteworthy.
  11. Commendable: Deserving praise; admirable.
  12. Yet: However; nevertheless.
  13. Amassed: Gathered; accumulated.
  14. Despite: In spite of; notwithstanding.
  15. Obtaining: Acquiring; achieving.
  16. Aggregate: Total; combined.
  17. Tallies: Counts; totals.
  18. Securing: Obtaining; achieving.
  19. Remarkably: Noticeably; notably.
  20. Demonstrating: Showing; indicating.

Ganglion Cyst Answers


1. A
2. D
3. B
4. C
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. (back of) hands
9. 5% to 15%
10. Women
11. Relive pain
12. Noticeable swel
13. Mucous
14. Needle aspirati
15. Ultrasound
16. Flexor tendion s
17. Bulge
18. Pass instrument
19. Muscular
20. Liquid contents

PART B
1. B
2. B
3. A
4. B
5. B
6. C

PART C EX1

7. C
8. A
9. B
10. D
11. B
12. A
13. B
14. C

PART C EX 2

15. B
16. A
17. A
18. D
19. A
20. B
21. D
22. A


Ganglion Cyst OET Reading

TEXT 1 What is a ganglion cyst?

A ganglion cyst is a collection of synovial fluid in a sac, on or near tendon sheaths and joint capsules. They usually appear on the on the dorsal aspect of hands, fingers and wrists, and can also occur on the feet, ankles and knees. The cyst can range from the size of a pea to the size of a golf ball. The size of a ganglion may increase over time, especially if it near a joint where there are frequent repetitive movements.

About 65% of ganglia of the wrist and hand are dorsal wrist ganglia, followed by the volar wrist ganglion constituting about 20 to 25% of ganglia. Flexor tendon sheath ganglia and mucous cysts arising from the dorsal distal interphalangeal joint make up the remaining 10 to 15%.

Ganglion cysts look and feel like a smooth lump under the skin and the wall of the ganglion is smooth, fibrous, and of variable thickness. The cyst is filled with clear gelatinous, sticky, or mucoid fluid of high viscosity. The fluid in the cyst is sometimes almost pure hyaluronic acid. The cyst is attached to the tendon or joint by a pedicle (stalk).

The cause of them is not known, however it is thought they may be caused by tiny tears in the covering of a tendon or joint. Ganglion cysts are benign and appear in isolation. Around 30 to 50 per cent of ganglion cysts resolve spontaneously without medical intervention, though this can take many years.

Ganglia constitute about 60% of all chronic soft-tissue swellings affecting the hand and wrist. They usually develop spontaneously in adults aged 20 to 50, with a female: male preponderance of 3:1.People who have wear-and-tear arthritis in the finger joints closest to their fingernails are at higher risk of developing ganglion cysts near those joints. Joints or tendons that have been injured in the past are more likely to develop ganglion cysts.

TEXT 2: Diagnosing a ganglion cyst

Ganglia are evident on examination even if they cannot be seen by the naked eye. It is important that cysts are examined by a doctor because there is another type of ganglion on the dorsal wrist that occurs in people with rheumatoid arthritis. A doctor can easily differentiate between them because a rheumatoid cyst is soft and irregular in appearance. Also, a person with rheumatoid arthritis will also have proliferative rheumatoid extensor tenosynovitis.

Most ganglion cysts do not cause symptoms, but the main symptoms people experience are a noticeable swelling or lump. The lump is able to change its size, including going away completely only to return. The lump is usually soft and immobile. In some cases, the lump is painful and aching, particularly those at the base of fingers. The ache and pain is made worse by moving any nearby joints. The affected tendon may cause a sensation of muscular weakness. The back of the hands and wrists are most commonly affected.

A medical examination is generally all that is needed to confirm diagnosis but other tests could include: Aspirating some of the fluid with a syringe An ultrasound to determine if the ganglion is solid or fluid filled X-ray and/or magnetic resonance imaging may be needed if the cyst cannot be seen.

TEXT 3 Passive treatment options for a ganglion cyst

If a cyst is not causing any problems, a passive “watch and wait” approach is recommended. This means the cyst is monitored and action only taken if it increases to a point where it causes symptoms. However, even if there are no symptoms some people prefer treatment for cosmetic reasons.

Temporarily immobilising the joints around a cyst may both slow down the rate at which the cyst grows and reduce the size of the cyst. This may release the pressure on nerves, relieving pain. If a person knows what activity is the likely cause such as starting to play an instrument or using a new piece of equipment, it may be helpful to stop or modify this activity.

Simple over the counter pain relievers and/or anti-inflammatory medications may be required to alleviate pain. In some cases, modifying shoes or how they are laced can relieve the pain associated with ganglion cysts on ankles or feet.

A traditional old home remedy for a ganglion cyst consisted hitting the cyst with the Bible. Thumping a cyst with any heavy object is not recommended because the force of the blow can damage surrounding structures in the hand or foot.

TEXT 4

Another self-help approach is to try and “pop” the cyst by puncturing it with a needle. This is unlikely to be effective and can lead to infection.

Some people advocate herbal remedies that have anti-inflammatory properties such as turmeric and ginger. The true cause of ganglion cysts is not known but they are a bulge in the lining of a structure. This means it is unlikely to be part of the inflammatory process

Active treatment options for ganglion cysts.

If a cyst is causing problems, a needle aspiration performed by a qualified doctor. This simple procedure is carried out in the GP surgery or hospital outpatients department. It involves drawing the liquid contents of the cysts out of the sac via the syringe.

Needle aspiration is usually the first active treatment option offered for ganglion cysts as it is less invasive than surgery. However, nonsurgical treatment fails in about 40 to 70% of patients, necessitating surgical excision.

The cyst may be surgically removed using either open or keyhole approaches.

In open surgery the surgeon makes a medium-sized cut, usually about 5cm (2in) long, over the site of the affected joint or tendon. The sac is removed at the pedicle to reduce recurrence.

Keyhole surgery is often used if the ganglion cyst is near, or in a joint. Smaller incisions are made and a tiny camera called an arthroscope is used by the surgeon to look inside the joint and then pass instruments through the incision to remove the cyst. Excision can be done via arthroscopic or standard open surgery. Recurrence rates after surgical excision are about 5 to 15%.

Questions 1-7 For each question, 1-7, decide which text (A, B, C or D) the information comes from. You may use any letter more than once. In which text can you find information about

1 The ratio of ganglion cysts between sexes? ___________________

2 The primary dynamic way of removing ganglion cysts? ________________

3 The investigations that may be done to confirm someone has a ganglion cyst? ___________________

4 How keeping the affected area immobile for a time can reduce the effect of a ganglion cyst? _____________

5 Another type of ganglion cyst that can develop at the wrist? ____________

6 The role the bible used to play in managing ganglion cysts? _____________

7 The contents of a ganglion cyst? ___________________

Questions 8-14 Answer each of the questions, 8-14, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts. Each answer may include words, numbers or both.

8 Where ganglion cysts are usually seen? ___________________

9 What percentage of ganglion cysts come back after a surgical excision? ___________________

10 Are ganglion cysts more common in men or women? ___________________

11 What can changing shoes achieve for people with ganglion cysts in lower limbs? ___________________ 12 What are the two main complaints people with a ganglion cyst have? ___________________

13 What type of cysts develop from the fingers? ___________________

14 What is often the first invasive treatment option offered for ganglion cysts? ___________________

Questions 15-20 Complete each of the sentences, 15-20, with a word or short phrase from one of the texts. Each answer may include words, numbers or both.

15 An______________ shows if the ganglion is solid or not.

16 ___________ganglia and mucous cysts in the DIP joints account for a small number of all ganglion cysts.

17 No one really knows why ganglion cysts develop but there is a____ in the membrane around a structure 18 A surgeon can look into a ganglion cyst around a joint with an arthroscope and then_________ through an additional small cut in the skin to get rid of the cyst.

19 A ganglion cyst on a tendon on can lead to a cause a feeling of___________________ weakness.

20 Needle aspiration involves pulling the__________ of the cysts out of the sac with a needle and syringe.

PART B

TEXT 1 What Nurses Need to Know About Celiac Disease and Gluten Sensitivity

Gluten is the group name for two proteins, gliadin and glutenin, which are primarily derived from wheat, barley, rye and triticale. These proteins are responsible for the bonding of particles, giving food its shape. When gluten is consumed, those with an allergy experience an immune response which attacks the small intestine. Once the villi of the small intestine are damaged, nutrients cannot be properly absorbed. While some people may be asymptomatic throughout their lifetime, many experience at least some symptoms.

Recent research shows there is no evidence to support an increased risk of celiac disease when infants are introduced to gluten at an early age (less than 4 months). However, delayed introduction (more than 7 months) to gluten may be associated with an increased risk.

Question 1) What does the article say about the causes of celiac disease?

a) It can provoke damage to the small intestine

b) It could be linked to children’s diets

c) Normally, children don’t suffer from celiac disease

TEXT 2 Aspirin Guidelines

Aspirin should be taken with, or straight after, a meal or snack. This helps to reduce the risk of any stomach irritation. Gastro-resistant tablets (also called enteric-coated or EC tablets) can be taken before food as these have a special coating which will help to protect the stomach from irritation. Gastro-resistant tablets should be swallowed whole, they must not be crushed or chewed. If the patient is using indigestion remedies, aspirin in this form must not be taken for at least two hours before and the two hours after they are used. This is because the antacid in the remedy can affect the way the coating on these tablets works. Melt-in-the-mouth (orodispersible) tablets should be placed on the tongue and allowed to dissolve.

Question 2) What do these guidelines say about when to take aspirin?

a) Aspirin taken close to meal times can irritate the stomach lining

b) Some types of aspirin have special indications

c) It can be taken in combination with indigestion remedies

TEXT 3 Assessing the Need for a Peripheral Intravenous Cannula

Many cannulas are left in without orders for intravenous fluids or medications. Some patients end up with two, three, or even more concurrent cannulas, despite only needing one in most cases. They are often left in ‘just in case’ they might be needed. But any catheter leads directly to the bloodstream and can be a source of infection. The need for the cannula must be constantly reassessed.

When a cannula is inserted, a flashback of blood in the chamber confirms it is in the vein. Flushing the cannula with 0.9% saline before and after intravenous medications reduces admixture of medicines and decreases the risk of blockage.

Question 3) What does this article say about the use of cannulas?

a) Cannula usage should be reviewed regularly

b) In most cases, concurrent cannula use is justified

c) Cannulas can be left in place so long as they are flushed with a 0.9% saline solution

TEXT 4 Description of the ‘SecurAcath’ Device

SecurAcath’ is a single-use device to secure percutaneous catheters in position on the skin. It is intended for use in adults and children who need a central venous

catheter which is a long, thin, flexible tube that is inserted into a vein through the skin.

‘SecurAcath’ has two parts, a base and cover. The base is made up of two foldable metal legs and two securement feet. The feet are placed under the skin at the catheter insertion site and unfolded to make a subcutaneous anchor. The cover then attaches to the catheter shaft and holds it in place when it is clipped onto the base. The device stays in place as long as the catheter is needed and can be lifted off the skin to allow cleaning of the insertion site.

Question 4) How should the ‘SecurAcath’ device be used?

a) The feet can be repositioned in order to clip them to the base

b) It should be correctly assembled before attaching the cover

c) The flexible tube should be inserted into a vein first

TEXT 5 Assessment of Colorectal Polyps During Colonoscopy

Colorectal polyps are small growths on the inner lining of the colon. Polyps are not usually cancerous, most are hyperplastic polyps with a low risk of cancer. However, some (known as adenomatous polyps) will eventually turn into cancer if left untreated. Detecting and removing adenomas during colonoscopy has been shown to decrease the later development of colorectal cancers. However, removal of any polyps by polypectomy may have adverse effects such as bleeding and perforation of the bowel.

It can take three weeks for a person to get the examination results for polyps that were removed during colonoscopy, and they may feel anxious during this waiting period. Using virtual chromoendoscopy technologies may allow real-time differentiation of adenomas and hyperplastic colorectal polyps during colonoscopy, which could lead to quicker results. Question

5) What does the article tell us about colonoscopies?

a) Colonoscopy and polypectomy procedures are thought to be risk-free

b) Virtual chromoendoscopy technology could speed up the process

c) Most hyperplastic polyps become cancerous if left untreated

TEXT 6 Osteomyelitis After Traumatic Knee Injury

A 56-year-old woman was admitted to a hospital for the treatment of osteomyelitis following a traumatic knee injury. She received the antibiotic Gentamicin in accordance with the hospital’s usual protocol. Kinetics, blood drug levels, and renal function were monitored, and dosage recommendations were made. However, a permanent vestibulopathy (or balance disorder) resulted from the antibiotic.

During the case investigation, the patient testified that she experienced “roaring” in her ears while hospitalized. (The roaring is a form of tinnitus) She further testified that she was not ambulatory; she was restricted to bed rest. No staff member inquired about unusual ear symptoms or told her to report such symptoms. Consequently, a lawsuit was brought against the hospital, specifically against the pharmacists. Question 6) What went wrong in the treatment of the 56-year-old woman?

a) The woman was infected by vestibulopathy while in hospital

b) The correct dosage was not balanced

c) Staff members failed to take note of the woman’s symptoms


PART C TEXT 1

Many adult hospital inpatients need intravenous (IV) fluid therapy to prevent or correct problems with their fluid and/or electrolyte status. Deciding on the optimal amount and composition of IV fluids to be administered and the best rate at which to give them can be a difficult and complex task, and decisions must be based on careful assessment of the patient’s individual needs.


Errors in prescribing IV fluids and electrolytes are particularly likely in emergency departments, acute admission units, and general medical and surgical wards rather than in operating theatres and critical care units. Surveys have shown that many staff who prescribe IV fluids know neither the likely fluid and electrolyte needs of individual patients, nor the specific composition of the many choices of IV fluids available to them. Standards of recording and monitoring IV fluid and electrolyte therapy may also be poor in these settings. IV fluid management in hospital is often delegated to the most junior medical staff who frequently lack the relevant experience and may have received little or no specific training on the subject.


The ‘National Confidential Enquiry into Perioperative Deaths’ report in 1999 highlighted that a significant number of hospitalised patients were dying as a result of infusion of too much or too little fluid. The report recommended that fluid prescribing should be given the same status as drug prescribing. Although mismanagement of fluid therapy is rarely reported as being responsible for patient harm, it is likely that as many as one in five patients on IV fluids and electrolytes suffer complications or morbidity due to their inappropriate administration.

There is also considerable debate about the best IV fluids to use (particularly for more seriously ill or injured patients), resulting in wide variation in clinical practice. Many reasons underlie the ongoing debate, but most revolve around difficulties in interpretation of both trial evidence and clinical experience. For example, many accepted practices of IV fluid prescribing were developed for historical reasons rather than through clinical trials. Trials cannot easily be included in meta-analyses because they examine varied outcome measures in heterogeneous groups, comparing not only different types of fluid with different electrolyte content, but also different volumes and rates of administration. In addition, most trials have been undertaken in operating theatres and critical care units rather than admission units or general and elderly care settings. Hence, there is a clear need for guidance on IV fluid therapy for general areas of hospital practice, covering both the prescription and monitoring of IV fluid and electrolyte therapy, and the training and educational needs of all hospital staff involved in IV fluid management.


The aim of these guidelines is to help prescribers understand the physiological principles that underpin fluid prescribing the pathophysiological changes that affect fluid balance in disease states and the indications for IV fluid therapy. In developing the guidelines, it was necessary to limit the scope by excluding patient groups with more specialised fluid prescribing needs. It is important to emphasise that the recommendations do not apply to patients under 16 years, pregnant women, and those with severe liver or renal disease, diabetes or burns. They also do not apply to patients needing inotropes and those on intensive monitoring, and so they have less relevance to intensive care settings and patients during surgical anaesthesia. Patients with traumatic brain injury (including patients needing neurosurgery) are also excluded. The scope of the guidelines does not cover the practical aspects of administration (as opposed to the prescription) of IV fluids. It is hoped that these guidelines will lead to better fluid prescribing in hospitalised patients, reduce morbidity and mortality, and lead to better patient outcomes.


The guidelines will assume that prescribers will use a drug’s summary of product characteristics to inform decisions made with individual patients. All patients continuing to receive IV fluids need regular monitoring. This should initially include at least daily reassessments of clinical fluid status, laboratory values (urea, creatinine and electrolytes) and fluid balance charts, along with weight measurement twice weekly. It is important to remember that patients receiving IV fluid therapy to address replacement or redistribution problems may need more frequent monitoring. Additional monitoring of urinary sodium may be helpful in patients with high-volume gastrointestinal losses. Patients on longer-term IV fluid therapy whose condition is stable may be monitored less frequently, although decisions to reduce monitoring frequency should be detailed in their IV fluid management plan. Clear incidents of fluid mismanagement (for example, unnecessarily prolonged dehydration or inadvertent fluid overload due to IV fluid therapy) should be reported through standard critical incident reporting to encourage improved training and practice (see Consequences of fluid mismanagement to be reported as critical incidents).

Questions 7-14

7) What does the first paragraph tell us about intravenous (IV) fluid therapy?
a) Most patients receive a standard composition of fluids
b) Electrolyte status should be kept at the optimal level
c) It is not easy to decide on the correct volume and speed of delivery of fluids
d) It is difficult to correct problems
8) What have surveys shown about intravenous (IV) fluid therapy?
a) There is often a lack of information about correct dosage
b) Sometimes, staff mixed up electrolyte fluids with standard IV fluids
c) Intravenous (IV) fluid therapy should be delegated to junior medical staff
d) Mistakes made in operating theatres were often fatal
9) What did the 1999 report highlight?
a) A small number of patients died because they were prescribed the wrong medication
b) Around 20% of patients experience problems due to incorrect IV fluid therapy
c) Some hospitals fail to report deaths due to mismanaged procedures
d) Not all Perioperative deaths could be linked to IV fluid therapy
10) What does the fourth paragraph tell us about IV fluid therapy?
a) Seriously ill patients generally need more fluids that injured patients
b) There are historical reasons to prolong the use of IV fluid therapy
c) The best IV fluids are more expensive
d) Not everyone agrees on the most suitable fluids to use
11) Why is it difficult to perform meta-analyses of trials?
a) There are not enough qualified analysts
b) Trials usually don’t take place in different healthcare settings
c) The volume of data is too great to analyse
d) More hospital staff need training before the trials take place
12) What do we learn about the scope of the guidelines in the fifth paragraph?
a) The guidelines are not appropriate for all types of patients
b) Patients needing inotropes and those on intensive monitoring were included for historical reasons
c) Pathophysiological patients were excluded because they cannot be given IV fluid therapy
d) The guidelines only apply to men (that is to say, adult male patients)
13) According the sixth paragraph, how often should clinical fluid status be reassessed?
a) Twice a day or more frequently
b) Once every 24 hours
c) Twice a week
d) Never – routine reassessment can be monitored by machine
14) What should be done in the case of fluid mismanagement?
a) Additional monitoring should be carried out
b) Rehydration should be prolonged
c) Information about occurrences should be conveyed to the appropriate authorities
d) The person or persons involved should be criticised


PART C TEXT 2

A CT scan is a specialised X-ray test. It can give quite clear pictures of the inside of your body. In particular, it can give good pictures of soft tissues of the body which do not show on ordinary X-ray pictures. CT stands for computerised tomography. It is sometimes called a CAT scan. CAT stands for Computerised Axial Tomography. The CT scanner looks like a giant thick ring. Within the wall of the scanner there is an X-ray source. Opposite the X-ray source, on the other side of the ring, are X-ray detectors. You lie on a couch which slides into the centre of the ring until the part of the body to be scanned is within the ring. The X-ray machine within the ring rotates around your body. As it rotates around, the X-ray machine emits thin beams of X-rays through your body, which are detected by the X-ray detectors.

The detectors detect the strength of the X-ray beam that has passed through your body. The denser the tissue, the less X-rays pass through. The X-ray detectors feed this information into a computer. Different types of tissue with different densities show up as a picture on the computer monitor, in different colours or shades of grey. So, in effect, a picture is created by the computer of a slice (cross-section) of a thin section of your body.

As the couch moves slowly through the ring, the X-ray beam passes through the next section of your body. So, several cross-sectional pictures of the part of your body being investigated are made by the computer. Newer scanners can even produce 3-dimensional pictures from the data received from the various slices of
the part of the body being scanned.

A CT scan can be performed on any section of the head or body. It can give clear pictures of bones. It also gives clear pictures of soft tissues, which an ordinary X-ray test cannot show, such as muscles, organs, large blood vessels, the brain and nerves. The most commonly performed CT scan is of the brain to determine the cause of a stroke, or to assess serious head injuries.

Usually, very little preparation is necessary. It depends on which part of your body is to be scanned. You will be given instructions by the CT department according to the scan to be done. As a general rule, you will need to remove any metal objects from your body, such as jewellery, hair clips, etc. It is best not to wear clothes with metal zips or studs. You may be asked not to eat or drink for a few hours before your scan, depending on the part of your body to be scanned.

The CT scan itself is painless. You cannot see or feel X-rays. You will be asked to stay as still as possible, as otherwise the scan pictures may be blurred. Conventional CT scans can take between 5-30 minutes, depending on which part of the body is being scanned. More modern CT scans (helical CT scans) take less than a minute and also use less radiation.

As the scan uses X-rays, other people should not be in the same room. The operator controls the movement of the couch and scanner from behind a screen or in a separate control room so that they are protected from repeated exposure to X-rays. However, communication is usually possible via an intercom, and you will be observed at all times on a monitor. Some people feel a little anxious or claustrophobic in the scanner room when they are on their own. You can return to your normal activities as soon as the scan is over. The pictures from the scan are studied by an X-ray doctor (radiologist) who sends a report to the doctor who requested the scan.

CT scans use X-rays, which are a type of radiation. Exposure to large doses of radiation is linked to developing cancer or leukaemia – often many years later. The dose of X-ray radiation needed for a CT scan is much more than for a single X-ray picture but is still generally quite a low dose. The risk of harm from the dose of radiation used in CT scanning is thought to be very small but it is not totally without risk. As a rule, the higher the dose of radiation, the greater the risk. So, for example, the larger the part of the body scanned, the greater the radiation dose. And, repeat CT scans over time cause an overall increase of dose. Various studies have aimed to estimate the risk of developing cancer or leukaemia following a CT scan. In general, the risk is small. In many situations, the benefit of a CT scan greatly outweighs the risk.

Questions 15-22
15) What advantage does a CT scan give over a standard X-ray?
a) It emits less radiation
b) It can take pictures of bones and soft tissues
c) It is quieter and uses less electricity
d) The patient can lie down during the scan
16) What can be seen on a CT scan result?
a) Tissue thicknesses and densities can be shown using different colours
b) The computer displays the date, time and patient’s name on the result
c) When this article was written, CT scans could only show shades of grey on the results
d) Cross-dimensional attributes are shown on the results in colour or shades of grey
17) What does the third paragraph tell us about the CT scans?
a) Usually, more than one picture is obtained
b) 3-dimensional pictures provide more information that standard cross-sectional pictures
c) The CT ring can be programmed to move the coach slowly
d) Images and scans can be stored on computers for up to a year
18) What type of scan is carried out most frequently?
a) Scans of the head and neck b) Scans of the chest and upper body
c) Whole body scans
d) Scans of the head only
19) What should you wear for your CT scan?
a) Clothing that is free of any metal
b) A standard hospital gown
c) There are usually no restrictions on clothing
d) Some scans require an absence of clothing
20) What can influence the clarity of CT images?
a) Temperature
b) Movement
c) Radiation levels
d) Levels of pain or discomfort
21) What does the article say about the number of people in the CT room?
a) A Only the operator will be with you in the CT room
b) You can ask for one or two people to stay with you during the scan
c) You can only be accompanied if you feel anxious or claustrophobic
d) You will be alone in the CT room
22) What does the last paragraph say about the levels of risk?
a) Generally, the risks are not as significant as the potential advantages
b) Some people have developed cancer or leukaemia after a CT scan
c) CT scanners pose a lower risk than standard X-ray machines
d) There is a high risk of cancer if you have a large body